Physiology Questions and Answers

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Physiology Questions and Answers

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Questions and Answers on Physiology

1. Chief efferent projection fibres from Basal Ganglia arise from:
(1) Caudate Lobe
(2) Globus Pallidus
(3) Putamen
(4) Subthalamic nucleus

2. All are medial descending pathways EXCEPT:
(1) Vestibulospinal tract
(2) Rubrospinal tract
(3) Reticulospinal tract
(4) Tectospinal tract

3. Large synaptic vesicles contain:
(1) Acetylcholine
(2) Glycine
(3) Neuropeptides
(4) GABA

4. A 40 year old man with history of syphilis complaints of lightning pains and ulcers at pressure points. He is found to have loss of position and vibration sense. The possible diagnosis is: .
(1) Syringomelia
(2) Tabes Dorsalis
(3) Brown Sequard Syndrome
(4) Autonomic neuropathy

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of Central Auditory Pathway?
(1) Medial Geniculate Body
(2) Inferior Colliculus
(3) Lateral Geniculate Body
(4) Superior Olives

6. The cells in cerebellum that secrete Glutamate as neuro-transmitter are:
(1) Basket cells
(2) Stellate cells
(3) Granule cells
(4) Purkinje cells

7. Tonic labyrinthine reflex is integrated in:
(1) Spinal cord
(2) Medulla
(3) Midbrain
(4) Cortex

8. In Brown Sequard Syndrome, lower motor neuron lesion features are seen at:
(1) Ipsilateral at the level of lesion
(2) Ipsilateral below the level of lesion
(3) Contralateral at the level of lesion
(4) Contralateral below the level of lesion

9. No matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along its course to the cortex, the conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor. This principle is called:
(1) Law of projection
(2) Law of specific nerve energy
(3) Weber Fechner law
(4) Bell Magendie law

10. Excessive hypersensitivity of pain receptors is called:
(1) Anodynia
(2) Primary hyperalgesia
(3) Secondary hyperalgesia
(4) Causalgia

11. Kinocilium is NOT present in:
(1) Semicircular canals
(2) Cochlea
(3) Utricle
(4) Saccule

12. 8-13 Hz and an amplitude of 50-100 µV EEG waves are:
(1) Alpha
(2) Beta
(3) Theta
(4) Gamma

13. Sleep spindles appear in which stage of NREM sleep:
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

14. The inability to identify objects by feeling them is called:
(1) Aphasia
(2) Astereognosis
(3) Dyslexia
(4) Dissociative anaesthesia

15. The neuro-transmitter secreted by Granule cells in Olfactory Bulb is:
(1) Acetyl choline
(2) Glycine
(3) Glutamate
(4) GABA

16. The mechanical advantage of the Ossicle chain is:
(1) Less than 1
(2) Greater than 1
(3) Equal to 1
(4) Equal to 0

17. Which cells in retina can either by hyperpolarising or depolarizing?
(1) Rods and Cones
(2) Bipolar cells
(3) Amacrine cells
(4) Ganglion cells

18. Most of the refraction that occurs in eye is at:
(1) Anterior surface of cornea
(2) Posterior surface of cornea
(3) Anterior surface of lens
(4) Posterior surface of lens

19. Which hormone is responsible for “Milk Ejection” reflex?
(1) Prolactin
(2) Estrogen
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Secretin

20. Calcitonin is produced by:
(1) Thyroid
(2) Parathyroid
(3) Thymus
(4) Kidney

Questions and Answers Quiz
MCQs Practice Set
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21. Thyroid binding globulin increases in –
(1) Diabetes Mellitus
(2) Pregnancy
(3) Grave’s disease
(4) Nephrotic syndrome

22. Ghrelin is responsible for:
(1) Stimulation of appetite
(2) Stimulation of sleep
(3) Stimulation of heart
(4) Stimulation of respiration

23. Addison’s discase is:
(1) Primary hyperaldosteronism
(2) Primary adrenal insufficiency
(3) Secondary adrenal insufficiency
(4) Secondary hyperaldosteronism

24. Increased glycolysis and decreased gluconeogenes is occur due to:
(1) Glucagon
(2) Insulin
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Cortisol

25. Vasopressin is secreted by:
(1) Supra optic nucleus
(2) Pre-optic nucleus
(3) Lateral geniculate nucleus
(4) Ventroposterior nucleus

26. Growth hormone level is decreased in:
(1) REM sleep
(2) Fasting
(3) Exercise
(4) Stressful stimuli

27. Sertoli cells secrete all of the following EXCEPT:
(1) Testosterone
(2) Androgen binding protein
(3) Inhibin
(4) MIS

28. Afferents for swallowing are all EXCEPT:
(1) Trigeminal
(2) Glossopharyngeal
(3) Vagus
(4) Hypoglossal

29. Which period of Migrating Motor Complex is associated with regular activity?
(1) Phase-I
(2) Phase-II
(3) Phase-III
(4) All of these

30. Which of the following decrease Gastrin secretion?
(1) Amino acids in lumen
(2) Distension of stomach
(3) Increased vagal discharge
(4) Somatostatin

31. Which of the following causes stimulation of Gastro-intestinal smooth muscle?
(1) NO
(2) ATP
(3) VIP
(4) Substance P

32. Substances that cause increased secretion of bile by causing contraction of gall bladder are called:
(1) Choleretics
(2) Cholagogues
(3) Cholelithiasis
(4) Hydrocholeretics

33. Which of the following is NOT an action of CCK?
(1) Secretion of enzyme with pancreatic juice
(2) Increased gastric emptying
(3) Contraction of gall bladder
(4) Augmentation of action of secretion

34. Iron is predominantly observed in:
(1) Stomach
(2) Duodenum
(3) Colon
(4) Ileum

35. The current through chloride channels is:
(1) Inward depolarising
(2) Outward depolarising
(3) Inward hyperpolarising
(4) Outward hyperpolarising

36. The largest buffering capacity of blood is contributed by:
(1) Plasma proteins
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) Phosphates
(4) Bicarbonates

37. Ameth count denotes:
(1) Lobes in nucleus of neutrophils
(2) Granules in neutrophils
(3) Absolute count of neutrophils
(4) Relative count of neutrophils

38. Wallerian degeneration is seen in:
(1) Proximal cut end of a nerve
(2) Distal cut end of a nerve
(3) Both cut ends of a nerve
(4) None of these

39. All of the following occur by stimulation of J receptors EXCEPT:
(1) Tachycardia
(2) Tachypnea
(3) Bronchoconstriction
(4) Hypotension

40. The earliest response to injury is:
(1) Neutrophils at the site of injury
(2) Vasoconstriction
(3) Formation of temporary hemostatic plug
(4) Formation of definitive hemostatic plug

41. Surfactant acts by decreasing:
(1) Pleural pressure
(2) Intrathoracic pressure
(3) Surface tension
(4) Alveolar pressure

42. Which of the following is seen in stagnant hypoxia?
(1) Arterial PO2 is reduced
(2) Arterial PO2 is normal
(3) Haemoglobin is reduced
(4) Adequate O2 is delivered to the tissues

43. The ratio of physiological dead space to Anatomical Dead Space in normal adult is:
(1) 2:1
(2) 3:1
(3) 1:1
(4) 1:2

44. Which of the following cannot be measured by spirometry?
(1) Vital capacity
(2) Tidal volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Residual Volume

45. Midcollicular lesion of midbrain produces:
(1) Decorticate rigidity
(2) Ischaemic rigidity
(3) Decerebrate rigidity
(4) Spasticity