Pharmacology Questions and Answers

Pharmacology Questions and Answers paper for the written examination is given below. Candidates who are looking for Pharmacology exam model question paper can find in this section. Pharmacology Previous Year Question Paper is available here.

Pharmacology Questions and Answers

The candidates who are looking for Pharmacology Exam Question Papers can find here. Also, download the free Pharmacology Previous Question Paper Pdf from the direct links in the article below. The previous papers help the applicants to get to know about the Pharmacology Exam Question Paper Pattern and also, helps in the preparation for written examination.

Questions and Answers on Pharmacology

1) Constitutive activity is the physiological effect that may be produced sometime:
A) In presence of an Inverse agonist
B) In absence of an agonist
C) In presence of partial agonist
D) In presence of an antagonist

2) Which statement is not true?
A) Enalapril is pro-drug
B) Bacampicilin converts in body into ampicillin
C) Prednisolone is prodrug of prednisone
D) Diazepam produces active metabolite oxazepam

3) All are pharmacogenetic conditions except:
A) G-6-PD deficiency
B) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Coumarin insensitivity

4) Which of the following drugs is not effectively removed by dialysis:-
A) Digoxin
B) Salicylates
C) Methanol
D) Ethylene glycol

5) After the intravenous injection of phenoxybenzamine the peak effect is obtained at about :
A) Immediate
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour

6) Fenolodopam used in hypertensive emergencies, may act as a vasodilator:
A) By increasing cAMP in vascular smooth muscle
B) By increasing cGMP in vascular smooth muscle
C) By decreasing Calcium influx in vascular smooth muscle
D) By preventing depolarization of vascular smooth muscle

7) Oxethazaine is
A) A topical anaesthetic used orally in gastritis
B) An anticholinergic drug for motion sickness
C) An antihistaminic drug for vomiting
D) None of the above
8) Intravenous regional anaesthesia is mainly used for
A) Upper abdomen surgery
B) Lower abdomen surgery
C) Thoracic surgery
D) Upper limb surgery

9) Following are the indirect acting sympathomimetics except
A) Phenmetrazine
B) Modafinil
C) Methylphenidate
D) Dexmedetomidine

10) Which of the following is correct regarding drug interactions with nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers (NMBs)?
A) Desflurane reduces the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
B) Cholinesterase inhibitors increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
C) Aminoglycosides increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
D) Calcium channel blockers reduce the effect of nondepolarizing NMBs

11) A beta adrenoceptor blocker which is not likely to be effective in improving the essential skeletal muscle tremors is :
A) Propronolol
B) Timolol
C) Nadolol
D) Betaxolol

12) A patient developed anaphylactic shock was treated with adrenaline. However, the patient did not respond fully to this treatment. History revealed that the patient was taking the following hypertensive which could have prevented the effect of adrenaline:
A) Atenolol
B) Propranolol
C) Doxazosin
D) Acebutalol

13) Most common dose related adverse drug reaction of phenytoin that requires dosage adjustment include:
A) Nystagmus
B) Loss of smooth extra ocular pursuit movements
C) Diplopia and Ataxia
D) None of the above

14) All statements are true regarding Cilostozol except
A) It is PDE-III inhibitor
B) It has vasodilating activity
C) It has a favourable effect on lipid profile
D) Not extensively metabolised by CYP isoenzymes

15) Loading dose is usually given to start therapy with all anti platelet agents EXCEPT:
A) Ticagrelor
B) Clopidogrel
C) Prasugrel
D) Dipyridamole

16) Which of the following reduces Triglyceride synthesis in liver by primarily inhibiting the lipolysis in adipose tissue and thus limiting the available free fatty acids required for TG synthesis:
A) Lovastatin
B) Niacin
C) Cholestyramine
D) Fenofibrate

17) All are true regarding Glinides except –
A) They stimulate insulin secretion
B) Bind to distinct site on beta cells thus closing ATP sensitive K+ channel
C) Categorized as “Post Prandial Glucose Regulators”
D) Should always be combined with sulfonylurea

18) Following Dopamine agonist can cause a modest reduction in HbA1c and has a glucose lowering effect in type-2 diabetes:
A) Aphmorphine
B) Bromocriptine
C) Rotigotine
D) Ropinirole

19) Plasma half life of the following may be increased significantly with concurrent use of cimetidine –
A) Pramipexole
B) Rophinirole
C) Apromophine
D) Bromocrptine

20) Among the drugs used in patients of multiple sclerosis, following can cause ‘first-dose bradycardia’
A) Interferon β1a
B) Fingolimod
C) Dimethy fumarate
D) Glatiramer

Interview Questions Nursing
Test Bank Quiz
LPN Practice Set MCQs
NCLEX Practice Set
HESI Questions and Answers

21) A potassium channel blocker, approved for symptomatic treatment of Multiple sclerosis is
A) Dofetilide
B) Dronedarone
C) Sotalol
D) Dalfampridine

22) All the following agents may cause cognitive impairment, including memory problems when used at recommended doses except –
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Zolpidem
C) Phenobarbital
D) Ramelteon

23) Which of the following agents has a rapid anxiolytic effect and would be best for the acute management in anxiety?
A) Buspirone
B) Venlafaxine
C) Lorazepam
D) Escitalopram

24) An antidepressant that may be useful in relieving the pain associated with fibromyalgia is :
A) Dapoxetine
B) Citalopram
C) Fluoxetine
D) Duloxetine

25) The antidepressant which is also available in a transdermal delivery system include
A) Tranylcypromine
B) Phenelizne
C) Isocarboxazid
D) Selegiline

26) Which among the following antidepressant acts mainly through its antagonistic action on 5HT2A and alpha2 receptors:
A) Doxepin
B) Moprotiline
C) Mirtzapine
D) Selegiline

27) Which is the following antidepressant is contraindicated in a patient of angle closure glaucoma
A) Amitriptyline
B) Sertraline
C) Bupropion
D) Mirtzapine

28) An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following antipsychotic agents may have the best chance to improve his apathy and blunted affect ?
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Fluphenazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone

29) Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Clozapine
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone

30) Which of the following antipsychotic agents is most associated with the possibility of a haematological dyscrasis such as agranulocytosis in a patient being treated for schizophrenia
A) Chlropromazine
B) Buspirone
C) Lithium
D) Clozapine

31) Which is the following drugs is most useful for the treatment of absence seizures?
A) Rufinamide
B) Tiagabine
C) Levetiracetam
D) Lamotrigine

32) Which is the following is a first-line medication for generalized tonic-clonic seizures ?
A) Ethosuximide
B) Felbamate
C) Clonazepam
D) Topiramate

33) Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a weak anaesthetic ?
A) Etomidate
B) Halothane
C) Midazolam
D) Nitrous oxide

34) An elderly patient with asthma and low blood pressure requires anaesthesia for an emergency surgical procedure. Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for inducing anaesthesia in this patient ?
A) Desflurane
B) Ketamine
C) Propotol
D) Thiopental

35) Adrenaline causes vasoconstriction in all of the following vessels except
A) Gut
B) Cerebral
C) Cutaneous
D) Renal

36) All of the following are bronchoconstrictor except
B) PGF2α

37) Platelet activation factor has all characters except
A) Produces platelets aggregation and release reaction
B) Chemotactic to neutorophils, eosinophila and monocytes
C) Vasoconstrictor to most of the blood vessels
D) Bronchoconstrictor

38) Allopurinol :
A) Increases the metabolism of theophylline
B) Decreases the metabolism of theophylline
C) Increases oral absorption of theophylline
D) Decreases oral absorption of theophyline

39) All of the following have receptors at cell membrane except
A) Insulin
B) Oxytocin
C) Adrenaline
D) Thyroxine

40) Cosyntropin test is for :
A) Diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
B) Diagnosis of thyroid insufficiency
C) Diagnosis of pituitary insufficiency
D) None of the above

41) Radioactive Iodine131 emits following rays
A) X rays and Beta rays
B) Beta rays and Alpha rays
C) Delta rays and Beta rays
D) Delta rays and X rays

42) Tyrosine protein kinase activity is present at
A) Alpha subunit of insulin receptors
B) Beta subunit of insulin receptors
C) Gamma subunit of insulin receptors
D) Delta subunit of insulin receptors

43) Which of the following drugs is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase ?
A) Atracurium
B) Cis-atracurium
C) Methenamine Hippurate
D) Mivacurium

44) All of the following drugs may be useful in Hereditary Angioedema, except
A) Icatibant
B) Danazol
C) Midodrine
D) Tranexamic acid

45) A disulfiram like reaction with Alcohol is seen with all of the following, except
A) Procarbazine
B) Carbamazepine
C) Chlorpropamide
D) Cefoperazine

46) Biliary Pseudolithiasis is a side effect of high doses of:
A) Amphotericin – B
B) Imipinem
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Vancomycin

47) Shortest break period to switch over from a MAO inhibitor to another antidepressant will be observed after stopping the therapy with
A) Moclobemide
B) Tranylcypromine
C) Phenelzine
D) Selegiline

48) Drug of choice for primary therapy of invasive aspergillosis is
A) Fluconazole
B) Voriconazole
C) Flucytosine
D) Itraconazole

49) False statement regarding Raloxifene is that it –
A) Increases bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer
B) Decreases risk of invasive breast cancer
C) Decreases risk of venous thromboembolism
D) Decreases Total Cholesterol

50) Chopidogrel therapy is likely to be ineffective in following patients
A) Poor CYP 2D6 metabolizer
B) Fast CYP 1A2 metabolizer
C) Poor CYP 2E1 metabolizer
D) Poor CYP 2C19 metabolizer