Questions to Ask Hiring Managers
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Hiring Managers Question Bank
1. The segmentation of the market and pricing differences based on price elasticity of these segments is referred to as………………..pricing.
(A) Competitive
(B) Variable
(C) Discriminative
(D) Judgemental
2. The advertising strategy in maturity stage of PLC is:
(A) Intermittent advertising
(B) Heavy advertising
(C) Stop advertising
(D) More budget for advertising
3. One firm owns other firm in channel or the entire channel. This situation is described as:
(A) Coordinated VMS
(B) Administered VMS
(C) Contractual VMS
(D) Corporate VMS
4. The R chart monitors:
(A) Proportion of defects
(B) Changes in the dispersion or variability
(C) Actual number of defects
(D) Subgroup average
5. Which is not a significant challenge of project scheduling?
(A) Deadlines exist
(B) Activities are interdependent
(C) Delays are costly
(D) Cost by employees involved is high
6. What is at the heart of any ERP system?
(A) Information
(B) Employees
(C) Customers
(D) Database
7. The mode has all of the following disadvantages except:
(A) A data set may have no modal value
(B) Every value in a data set may be a mode
(C) A multimodal data set is difficult to analyze
(D) The mode is unduly affected by extreme values
8. Open ended questions produce:
(A) Quantitative data only
(B) Qualitative data
(C) No data
(D) Easy data
9. When the population is divided into subsets such that the units within the subset are as homogeneous as possible and are heterogeneous among themselves, the sampling method is called as……………..
(A) Quota sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Stratified sampling
(D) Cluster sampling
10. The main difference between Z and t-tests is:
(A) For t-test, the population mean and standard deviation are needed
(B) For Z-test the population mean and standard deviation are needed
(C) For t-test only sample mean is needed
(D) The t-test and Z-test are identical except of sample size used
11. The covariance of two random variables:
(A) Does not have an upper or lower bound
(B) Does not provide an indication of the direction of the relationship between the variables
(C) Is a positive number
(D) Has no measurement unit
12. The critical path of a project network diagram has:
(A) Shortest duration
(B) Odd number of nodes
(C) Longest duration
(D) Even number of nodes
13. The chart used to monitor the number of non-conforming units of a process is:
(A) C chart
(B) X chart
(C) R chart
(D) np chart
14. ………………..are set of rules and procedures to control the data transmission over the internet.
(A) IP address
(B) Domains
(C) Protocol
(D) Gateway
15. IRC stands for:
(A) Internet Resource Channel
(B) Internet Routing Channel
(C) Internet Rights Council
(D) Internet Rely Chat
16. Whether an information system implemented for an organisation is successful depends upon:
(A) The culture and the competitive environment of the organisation
(B) The competitive environment and the competitive strategy of the organisation
(C) The culture, the competitive environment and the competitive strategy of the organisation
(D) The culture, the competitive environment, the competitive strategy and the structure of the organisation
17. Computer device which is able to capture image of any type including solid objects is known as:
(A) Web cam
(B) Video cam
(C) Scanner
(D) Image viewer
18. The major drawbacks in decisionmaking by MIS is difficult due to changing …………… for business problems.
(A) Structure
(B) Rules
(C) Strategy
(D) Conditions
19. The World Bank has mainly financed………………sector and it normally gives…………..loans.
(A) Agriculture, Short term
(B) Industry, Long term
(C) Energy, Medium & long term
(D) Transport, Long term
20. If a country experiences deficit in the balance of payments account, it can be corrected by the policy of………
(A) Demonetization of currency
(B) Lower bank rate
(C) More subsidies to producers
(D) Exchange controls and import quotas
21. Duty drawback scheme in the context of foreign trade policy of India was aimed at…………………
(A) Raising tax revenue
(B) Simplifying the tax administration
(C) Reaching out to more countries for exports
(D) Enhancing the competitiveness of export goods
22. The MUDRA Banks were set up under the………………scheme. It will provide its services to small entrepreneurs outside the service area of regular banks, by using last miles agents.
(A) Jan-Dhan Yojana
(B) Atal Bihari Mudra Yojana
(C) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
(D) Pradhan Mantri Employment Yojana
23. As per Bank’s definition, SMEs include:
(A) Manufacturing Units only
(B) SSI Units only
(C) Manufacturing Units and Business Units under SBF and C & I units
(D) Business Units only
24. Which one is not the part of migration to new capital adequacy framework, based on the three pillar approach namely?
(A) Minimum Capital Requirement
(B) Supervisory Review
(C) Market Discipline
(D) Book-keeping
25. Which one of the following criteria defined by Kohali Committee as a criteria to identify sick unit in third census?
(A) Erosion in net worth to the extent of 50%
(B) Erosion in net worth to the extent of 80%
(C) Delay by more than 3 months in repayment
(D) Continuous decline in gross output to previous one financial year
26. ………………..is an assessment of the overall appeal of the product or service being proposed.
(A) Concept testing
(B) Product/service feasibility analysis
(C) Test marketing
(D) Usability testing
27. Which of the following contains large number of new ideas?
(A) Files of Patent office
(B) Official Gazette
(C) Government Patent Board
(D) All of the above
28. ‘‘Stree Shakti Package’’ is a unique scheme run by……………….supporting entrepreneurship among women.
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) Bank of Baroda
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Bank of Maharashtra
29. Which of the following is not a intrapreneurial leadership characteristics?
(A) Understanding the environment
(B) Is visionary and flexible
(C) Self-centric
(D) Ability to encourage team work and use multidisciplined approach
30. In……………………., the entrepreneur has the right to sell any assets.
(A) Proprietorship
(B) Partnership
(C) Limited liability company
(D) Joint venture
31. From the following which one is not classification of entrepreneurs according to the types of business?
(A) Wholesale trade
(B) Retail trade
(C) Exporter
(D) Rural Entrepreneur
32. An increasing number of retailers and wholesalers have created their own ……………………also called store brands.
(A) Unsought products
(B) Private brands
(C) Shopping products
(D) Speciality products
33. Which of the following is not a mode of entry to international marketing?
(A) Licensing
(B) Franchising
(C) Joint ventures
(D) Researching overseas
34. Which one of the following is a model related to understanding consumer behaviour?
(A) BCG Matrix
(B) Porter’s five forces model
(C) Howard Sheth model
(D) Argris model
35. Which one of the following is not a type of supply chain design?
(A) Cross Docking
(B) Reverse distribution
(C) Third party logistics
(D) Economic logistics
36. Brand equity generally means:
(A) Brand Attitude
(B) Brand Positioning
(C) Brand Value
(D) Brand Image
37. The process of managing information about customers to maximise loyalty is said to be:
(A) Company Relationship Management
(B) Supplier Management
(C) Retailer’s Management
(D) Customer Relationship Management
38. The strategy of using individual family brand names is referred as:
(A) Strategy House
(B) House of Brands
(C) House of Products
(D) Extended Strategy
39. Collection of activities used to sell products too directly to end users for non-business use is classified as:
(A) Inter-modeling
(B) Distribution operation
(C) Wholesaling
(D) Retailing
40. Brands are born out of the following strategies:
(A) Promotion strategies
(B) Supply chain strategies
(C) Segmentation and differentiation strategies
(D) Pricing strategies
41. Brand image is the measure of:
(A) The current view of the consumers about a brand
(B) Measure of brand’s earnings
(C) Awareness level of the brand
(D) Measure of market share of the brand
42. ………………….helps organizations identify employee strengths and weeknesses to determine a venue for their career development.
(A) Gap Analysis
(B) Individual assessment
(C) Organisational assessment
(D) Opportunity analysis
43. Performance bonus is an example of:
(A) Intrinsic reward
(B) Extrinsic reward
(C) Intrinsic wage payment
(D) Extrinsic wage payment
44. Which of the following best defines recruitment in an organisation?
(A) Forecast the supply of outside candidates
(B) Develop an appropriate applicant pool
(C) Determine the importance of Job applicants
(D) Preparing job profile as per post requirement
45. What describes in detail, the various aspects of a job like the tasks involved the responsibilities of the job and deliverables?
(A) Job Description
(B) Job Specification
(C) Job Evaluation
(D) Job Enlargement
46. ……………..is the process by which the knowledge of an employee, his skills, his abilities and motives to perform a job match the requirement of the job.
(A) Recruitment
(B) Job Analysis
(C) Selection
(D) Placement
47. The development function of human resources has three dimensions. Which of the following does not fall under the development function of human resources?
(A) Employee training
(B) Management development
(C) Career development
(D) Identifying ways to motivate employees
48. Who started the publication of English weekly called ‘‘socialist’’ 1923?
(A) Muzaffar Ahmad
(B) V.B. Karnik
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) S.A. Dange
49. Accidents are described in terms of:
(A) Fatal, Minor, Partial
(B) Total, Major, Disability
(C) Internal, Temporary, Permanent
(D) Frequency, Severity, Incidence
50. As per Schedule 49 of Factories Act, organization should appoint Labour Welfare Officer if employees are more than:
(A) 250
(B) 750
(C) 500
(D) 1000
