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Sample Questions and Answers for Emergency Trauma Technician
1. Diclofenac acts as:
2. Which healthcare professional(s) are you NOT likely to find in a hospital emergency department?
A. Emergency nurse
B. Paramedic (in some states)
C. Emergency doctor
D. . Office superintendent
3. The victim has pale or bluish skin colour, cold skin, and dull or sunken eyes These are symptoms of which health emergency?
A. High fever
C. Heart attack
4. What should you put on a minor (first-degree) burn?
A. Ice water
D. None of the above
5. The onset of jaundice in 10 days old baby is mainly due to
B. Physiological jaundice
C. Congenital infection
D. Breast milk fever
6. Which organism is an uncommon cause of bacterial sinusitis?
A. Streptococcal pneumonia
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Haemophilus inlluenzae
D. Moraxella catarrhalis
7. Which of the following is main cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
8. 0n arrival at an incident, what task must pre-hospital personnel undertake first?
A. Patient assessment
B. Scene assessment
C. Care provision
D. Patient handover
9. The system of ‘triage’ is based upon which of the following principles?
A. Treating patients in order of priority
B. Treating first come first served
C. Treating the quickest and easiest first
D. Treating those that complaint the most first
10. Which of the following is the initial analgesic drug of choice for a patient who is in severe pain, due to a fracture?
B. NSAI D
D. IV opiate
11. Which of the following does not include in vital parameters?
A. Urinary glucose
C. Pulse rate
D. Blood pressure
12. What is the most common method of transport used by patients to access the Emergency Department?
C. Patient/carer’s own transport
D. Single responders car
13. The vacutainer tube to collect and separate serum is
14. The destruction of all microorganisms including spores is called
15. Which of the following is commonly used to preserve tissue biopsies?
A. Formic acid
B. 40% Formaldehyde
C. Zenker’s fluid
16. Which of the following is not a feature of life threatening asthma?
C. Silent chest
17. Which of the following methods of cardiovascular assessment allow estimation of the amplitude of a pulse?
A. Pulse oximetry
B. Manual palpation
C. Cardiac monitor
D. Cardiac auscultation
18. Which colour bin is not used for biomedical waste disposal?
19. Which of the following is the major cause of blood transfusion reaction?
A. ABO incompatibility
B. Severe jaundice
D. Cardiac arrest
20. Which of the following removes waste metabolites from the body?
21. Which of the following is outer protective cover of the body?
22. The normal range of blood pressure in an adult is:
A. 30-50 mmHg
B. 120-80 mmHg
C. 20-60 mmHg
D. 70-100 mmHg
23. Which of the following cannulas has the fastest flow-rate?
A. 22G (blue)
B. 20G (pink)
C. 18G (green)
D. 14G (brown)
24. Which of the following is a valid rationale for inserting a central venous catheter (CVC)?
A. For rapid fluid administration
B. For central drug administration
C. Because it is quicker than gaining peripheral IV access
D. Because it is safer than gaining peripheral IV access
25. The heart is made of which type of muscles mainly?
A. Non striated muscles
B. Cardiac muscles
C. Adipose tissue
D. Striated muscles
26. Name the acid that is secreted in the stomach:
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
27. A 12 lead ECG consists of 4 limb leads and how many chests leads?
28. Which class of antibodies are mainly found in sweat, milk and Gastro intestinal secretions?
29. Which of the following is not considered an organ of the immune system?
C. Lymph node
30. Which of the following is the most common symptom experienced by patients with ACS (Acute Coronary Syndrome)?
A. Chest pain
B. Abdominal pain
31. What is the most common cause of heart failure?
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Myocardial infarction
32. What does a poor conscious level indicate about the brain’s function?
A. The brain function is normal
B. The brain function is impaired
C. Poor consciousness tells us nothing about brain function
D. None of above
33. What does FAST stand for to assess Stroke?
A. Fingers – Arms – Stomach – Toes
B. Fast Acting Stroke Thrombolysis
C. Face — Arms — Speech — Time
D. A and B
34. When is a diagnosis of epilepsy made?
A. After someone has had a seizure
B. When a person has a tendency to have recurrent seizures
C. When a person thinks they have epilepsy
D. There is some parental history
35. Which of the following can cause seizures?
A. Low sodium
C. Previous head injury
D. All of the above
36. In which location does pain tend to predominate in appendicitis as symptoms worsen’?
A. Left iliac fossa
B. Right iliac iossa
D. Right upper quadrant
37. What is the site for CSF specimen collection?
A. L3/L4 or L4/L5 interspaoe insertion
B. Dorsal vertebral interspaoe insertion
C. Cervical interspaoe insertion
D. Sacro-iliac interspaoe insertion
38. Cholecystitis is an inflammation of which organ?
A. Gall bladder
39. Vomiting blood is known as:
40. Urinary tract infection (UTI) is least common in which of the following groups?
A. Patients with an indwelling urinary catheter
D. Patients with co-morbidities
41. Which of the following is not a part of disaster management in the hospital?
C. Biomedical waste management
42. Which of the following is not an inflammatory condition of the body?
43. For diagnosis of cancer the tissue specimens will be sent to which laboratory?
44. All the following are important electrolytes in the body except:
A. Potassium ions
B. Carbon ions
C. Chloride ions
D. Sodium ions
45. First degree burn involves:
A. Only the top layer of skin
B. Is red with blisters
C. Destroys all layers of skin
D. Is the most serious of burns
46. Basic Life Support (BLS) comprises following elements except
A. airway maintenance
B. chest compression
C. expired air ventilation (rescue breathing)
47. Following are the important components of advanced life support services except:
B. Cardiac monitor
C. Intravenous cannulation set
D. X-ray machine
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