General Surgery Questions and Answers for Practice and Preparation

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General Surgery Questions and Answers

1. The characteristic changes that follow a major operation or moderate to severe injury do not include the following:
A) Hypermetabolism.
B) Fever
C) Tachypnea
D) Hyperphagia.

2. Shock can best be defined as:
A) Hypotension.
B) Hypoperfusion of tissues.
C) Hypoxemia.
D) All of the above.

3. The most common hernia in females is:
A) Femoral hernia.
B) Direct inguinal hernia.
C) Indirect inguinal hernia.
D) Obturator hernia.

4. The following statement about peritonitis are all true except:
A) Peritonitis is defined as inflammation of the peritoneum.
B) Most surgical peritonitis is secondary to bacterial contamination.
C) Primary peritonitis has no documented source of contamination and is more common in adults than in children and in men than in women.
D) Tuberculosis peritonitis can present with or without ascites.

5. Acute appendicitis is most commonly associated with which of the following signs?
A) Temperature above 104° F.
B) Frequent loose stools.
C) Anorexia, abdominal pain, and right lower quadrant tenderness.
D) White blood cell count greater than 20,000 per cu. mm.

6. The best type of x-ray to locate free abdominal air is:
A) A postero-anterior view of the chest.
B) A flat and upright view of the abdomen.
C) Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen.
D) A lateral decubitus x-ray, right side up.

7. The most commonly-used imaging method for diagnosis of acute cholecystitis is
A) CT of the abdomen.
B) Ultrasonography of the gallbladder.
C) Oral cholecystogram.
D) Radionuclide (HIDA) scan of the gallbladder.

8. The most common site of adenocarcinoma of the small intestine is the:
A) Duodenum.
B) jejunum.
C) Ileum.
D) None of the above

9. Meckel’s diverticulum most commonly presents as:
A) Gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) Obstruction.
C) Diverticulitis.
D) Intermittent abdominal pain.

10. The most common indication for operation in Crohn’s disease of the colon is:
A) Obstruction.
B) Chronic debility.
C) Bleeding.
D) Perforation.

11. The most common indication for surgery secondary to acute diverticulitis is:
A) Abscess.
B) Colonic obstruction.
C) Colovesical fistula.
D) Free perforation.

12. Sigmoid volvulus has been associated with each of the following except:
A) Chronic constipation and laxative abuse.
B) Chronic rectal prolapse.
C) Chronic traumatic paralysis.
D) Medical management of Parkinson’s disease.

13. Which of the following treatments most effectively preserves hepatic portal perfusion?
A) Distal splenorenal shunt.
B) Conventional splenorenal shunt.
C) Endoscopic sclerotherapy.
D) Side-to-side portacaval shunt.

14. The most precise diagnostic screening procedure for differentiating benign thyroid nodules from malignant ones is:
A) Thyroid ultrasonography.
B) Thyroid scintiscanl
C) Fine-needle-aspiration biopsy (FNAB).
D) Thyroid hormone suppression.

15. The preferred operation for initial management of a thyroid nodule that is considered suspicious for malignancy by FNAB is:
A) Excision.
B) Partial lobectomy.
C) Total lobectomy and isthmusectomy.
D) Total thyroidectomy.

16. All of the following are components of the MEN type 2B syndrome except:
A) Multiple neuromas on the lips, tongue, and oral mucosa.
B) Hyperparathyroidism.
C) MTC.
D) Pheochromocytoma.

17. Which of the following statements is/are true of the epidemiology and etiology of A.? Most melanoma?
A) Patients are diagnosed after age 60 years.
B) Skin colour has no association with risk of melanoma.
C) Sun exposure is the only risk factor for melanoma.
D) The per capita incidence of melanoma is highest in Australia.

18. A marker for the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer is:
A) CA 15-3
B) CA 19-9.
C) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
D) CYFRA 21-1.

19. Which serum markers are useful in the management of patients with testicular cancer?
A) hCG
B) AFP
C) CA 15-3.
D) Two of the above.

20. The most ominous sign or symptom of urinary system disease is:
A) Urinary frequency.
B) Pyurla.
C) Pneumaturia.
D) Hematuria.

Practice Set	MCQs
Quiz	Questions and Answers

21. A patient with acute urinary tract infection (UTI) usually presents with:
A) Chills and fever.
B) Flank pain.
C) Nausea and vomiting.
D) Painful urination.

22. Renal adenocarcinomas:
A) Are of transitional cell origin.
B) Usually are associated with anaemia.
C) Are difficult to diagnose.
D) Frequently are signalled by gross haematuria.

23. Patients who have undergone operations for benign prostatic hypertrophy or hyperplasia:
A) Require routine rectal examinations to detect the development of carcinoma of the prostate.
B) Do not need routine prostate examinations.
C) Have a lesser incidence of carcinoma of the prostate.
D) Have a greater incidence of carcinoma of the prostate.

24. To maximize fertility potential, orchidopexy for cryptorchidism should be done before:
A) Age 15 years.
B) Age 12 years.
C) Marriage.
D) Age 2 years.

25. The appropriate surgical treatment for suspected carcinoma of the testis is:
A) Transscrotal percutaneous biopsy.
B) Transscrotal open biopsy.
C) Repeated examinations.
D) lnguinal exploration, control of the spermatic cord, biopsy, and radical orchectomy if tumor is confirmed.

26. if torsion of the testicle is suspected, surgical exploration:
A) Can be delayed 24 hours and limited to the affected side.
B) Can be delayed but should include the asymptomatic side.
C) Should be immediate and limited to the affected side.
D) Should be immediate and include the asymptomatic side.

27. Commonest site of peptic ulcer is .
A) 1st part of duodenum
B) 2nd part of duodenum
C) Distal 1/3rd of stomach
D) Pylorus of stomach

28. Most common type of intussusception is
A) ilio-colic
B) ilio-ileal
C) colo-colic
D) caeco-colic

29. Dumping syndrome is due to
A) Diarrhea
B) Presence of hypertonic content in small intestine
C) Vagotomy
D) Reduced gastric capacity

30. Anchovy sauce pus is a feature of
A) Amoebic liver abscess
B) Lung abscess
C) Splenic abscess
D) Peptic Ulcer

31. Most common site for impaction of gall stones in gall stone ileus is
A) 1st part of duodenum
B) 2nd part of duodenum
C) Terminal ileum
D) Colon

32. Pyodermagagrenosum is most commonly associated with
A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Amoebic colitis
D) lschaemic colitis

33. Post Operative pulmonary thromboembolism is seen in all except
A) Tall and thin man
B) Obese male
C) Pregnant female
D) Oestrogen therapy

34. Organism causing infection in patients following splenectomy –
A) Strep pneumonia
B) Staph aureus
C) H-influenzae
D) Pseudomonas

35. Most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice is
A) can stone
B) Stricture in can
C) Alcoholism
D) Malignancy

36. Most common tumour of spleen is
A) Lymphoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Haemangioma
D) Metastasis

37. Which of the following is not an absolute indication for splenectomy
A) Splenic abscess
B) Hereditary spherocytosis
C) Fibrosarcoma
D) Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

38. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma oesophagus is .
A) Upper third
B) Middle third
C) Lower third
D) Gastro-oesophagealjunction

39. True regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
A) More common in girls
B) Hypo chloremic alkalosis
C) Hellersmyotomy is the procedure of choice
D) Most often manifests from burn

40. An ulcer that may develop in from burn tissue is
A) Marjolin’s
B) Rodent
C) Melanoma
D) Curlings

41. Pre- malignant condition with the highest probability for progression to malignancy is
A) Dysplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Leucoplakia
D) Erythroplakia

42. Adenocarcinoma of oesophagus develops in
A) Barret’s oesophagus
B) Long standing achalasia
C) Corrosive structure
D) Alcohol abuse

43. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in
A) Peuts-jegher’ s polyp
B) Juvenile polyposis
C) Familial polyposis coll
D) Hyper plastic polyp

44. In which of the following condition is acquired (secondary) megacolon seen
A) Fissure in ano
B) Complete absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells
C) Absence of sympathetic ganglion cell
D) Rectal malignancy

45. The diagnosis of congenital megacolon is confirmed by
A) Clinical features
B) Barium enema
C) Rectal biopsy
D) Recto-sigmoidoscopy

46. Most common cause ‘of peripheral limb ischaemia in India is
A) Trauma
B) Antherosclerotic
C) Burger’s disease
D) Takayasu‘s disease

47. In which of the following tumours alpha fetoprotein is elevated
A) Chogiocarcinoma
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Hepatocellular carcinoma
D) Seminoma

48. Acalculouscholecystitis is seen in all the following conditions except
A) Enteric fever
B) Dengue haemorrhagic fever
C) Leptospirosis
D) Malaria

49. Most common site of a benign peptic ulcer is
A) Upper third of lesser curvature
B) Greater curvature
C) Pyloric antrum
D) Lesser curvature near incisuraangularis

50. Most common endocrine tumour of pancreas
A) Insulinoma
B) Gastrinoma
C) Lipoma
D) Glucagonoma

51. Which of the following is not a test for varicose veins
A. Schwartz test
B. Fegan’s test
C. Pemberton test
D. Modified Perthe’s test

52. The inter pectoral lymph nodes are called?
A. Delphian nodes
B. Irish Nodes
C. Rotter’s
D. Sister Mary Josephs Nodes

53. An ‘Onion Peel’ appearance on CT is suggestive of
A. Chondroma
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Plasmacytoma
D. Osteosarcoma

54. Virchow’s triad is characterized by
A. Stasis
B. Endothelial injury
C. Hypercoagulability
D. All of the above

55. The Most common cause of small bowel obstruction
A. Malignancy
B. Crohn‘s disease
C. Post-operative adhesions
D. Incarcerated Hemia

56. All of the following make up Alvarado Score except
A. Anorexia
B. Left shift of Neutrophils
C. Iliopsoas sign
D. Right lower quadrant pain

57. ‘Double-bubble’ Sign on X-ray is characteristic of
A. Duodenal atresia
B. Jejunal atresia
C. Meconium lleus
D. Pyloric stenosis

58. Orphan Annie eye Nuclei is seen in
A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
B. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
C. Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
D. Follicular carcinoma thyroid

59. FAST stands for
A. Focused assessment for sonography for trauma
B. Focused abdominal sonography for trauma
C. Fast assessment with sonography for trauma
D. Fast assignment with sonography and tomography(Computed)

60. Which organisms is responsible for Gas Gangrene?
A. CI. Botulinum
B. Cl. Difficile
C. Cl. Perfringens
D. Cl. Tetani

61. Shock is clinically best assessed by
A. Pulse
B. Blood pressure
C. Urine Output
D. Skin turgor

62. Which colour of triage is given highest priority
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Black

63. Solubility of Cholesterol in Bile is determined by
A. Cholesterol, calcium, Bilirubin
B. Cholesterol, Bile Salts, Lecithin
C. Bile Salts, Cholesterol, Bilirubin
D. Calcium, Cholesterol, Bile salts

64. The most common cause of Atrial septal defect is
A. Sinus venous defect
B. Ostium Primum defect
C. Ostium Secundum Defect
D. Combined primum and Secundum defect

65. Which is not a component of Systemic Inflammatory response syndrome [SIRS]
A. Temperature
B. WBC Count
C. Blood Pressure
D. Heart rate

66. A clean incised wound heals by
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Excessive scarring
D. None of the above

67. Most common Nosocomial infection
A. Surgical site infection
B. Respiratory tract infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Skin and soft tissue infection

68. In which of the tumours Alpha feto Protein is elevated
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Seminoma

69. Best investigation for bone metastasis is
A. MRI
B. CT
C. Bone Scan
D. X-ray

70. Normal value of Ankle Brachial index is
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. 0.3

71. Drug used for sclerotherapy of Varicose Veins are all except
A. Ethanolamine Oleate
B. Polidocanol
C. Ethanol
D. Sodium tetradecyl Sulphate

72. Most common tumour of parotid gland
A. Warthin’s
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Hemangioma

73. Triple assessment for Ca Breast includes
A. History, Clinical examination and mammogram
B. History, Clinical examination and FNAC
C. USG, Mammogram and FNAC
D. Clinical examination, Mammogram and FNAC

74. Barrett’s oesophagus is diagnosed by
A. squamous Metaplasia
B. Intestinal Metaplasia
C. Squamous dysplasia
D. intestinal dysplasia

75. Risk factor for adenocarcinoma oesophagus
A. Barrett’s Oesophagus
B. Corrosive injury
C. Achalasia Cardia
D. All of the above

76. The consistently largest artery of stomach is
A. Right gastric
B. Left gastric
C. Right Gastroepiploic
D. Left Gastroepiploic

77. Highly selective vagotomy preserves
A. Nerves of Latarjet
B. Nerves of Kuntz
C. Nerves of Mayo
D. None of the above

78. Root of Mesentery is how long?
A. 5 cms
B. 15 cms
C. 25 cm
D. 35 cms

79. Constricting type of colonic carcinoma is seen in
A. Left colon
B. Right colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Caecum

80. Commonest presentation of carcinoma rectum is
A. Diarrhoea
B. Constipation
C. Bleeding PR
D. Feeling of incomplete defecation

81. Haemorrhoids that have to be reduced manually are?
A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV

82. Jeep’s Disease is also known as
A. Anal incontinence
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Pilonidal sinus
D. Anal Fissure

83. Treatment of strangulated Hernia is
A. Observation
B. Immediate surgery
C. Manual reduction
D. Analgesics

84. Hesselbach’s triangle is bounded by the following except
A. Rectus Abdominis muscle
B. Transverse Abdominis Muscle
C. Inferior Epigastric artery
D. Inguinal Ligament

85. Kehr’s Sign is seen in
A. Splenic injury
B. Liver injury
C. Renal Injury
D. Mesenteric Hepatoma

86. Portal triad is not formed by
A. Hepatic artery
B. Hepatic vein
C. Bile duct
D. Portal vein

87. Vitamin to be corrected in obstructive jaundice is
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12

88. Mercedes Benz or Seagull Sign is seen in
A. CBD Stones
B. Renal Stones
C. Gall stones
D. Hydatid Cyst

89. Grey turner sign is seen in
A. Acute pyelonephritis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute Pancreatitis
D. Acute peritonitis

90. Commonest presentation of Wilm’s tumour is
A. Hematuria
B. Abdominal Lump
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Pain in Abdomen

91. Thimble bladder is seen in
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Neurogenic Bladder
C. Tuberculosis
D. Ectopia vesicle

92. Lentiform OR lens-shaped hyper dense lesion on CT scan is seen in
A. Extradural Hematoma
B. Subdural Hematoma
C. Sub-arachnoid Hematoma
D. None

93. Most commonly used resuscitation formula in burns patient is
A. Wallace
B. Brooke’s
C. Parkland
D. Barclay’s

94. Air Embolism in Neurosurgery is most commonly seen in which position
A. Sitting
B. Supine
C. Trendelenburg
D. Left Lateral

95. Most commonly injured organ in underwater explosion is
A. Tympanic membrane
B. GIT
C. Lung
D. Liver

96. Toxic Megacolon is seen in
A. Carcinoma colon
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Amoebic colitis
D. Gastrocolic fistula

97. Pulled up Caecum is seen in
A. Carcinoma colon
B. Carcinoid tumor
C. Ileocaecal Tuberculosis
D. Regional Enteritis

98. lnhalational agent of choice in children is
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Halothane
D. Sevoflurane

99. Bruising over mastoid process following trauma is
A. Battle sign
B. Boas sign
C. Courvoisier’s sign
D. Ten Horn sign

100. Colour of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Royal Blue