Clinical Research Questions and Answers

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Clinical Research Questions and Answers

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Questions and Answers on Clinical Research

1. Which of the following about active immunity is correct?
(a) No Lag phase
(b) Booster doses are useful
(c) Useful in immunodeficient people
(d) No memory cells

2. Superantigens causes
(a) Enhancement of phagocytosis
(b) Polyclonal activation of B cells
(c) Antigen presentation by macrophages
(d) Activation of complement

3. Which antibody crosses placenta?
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM

4. Paul Bunnel test is example of
(a) Agglutination
(b) Precipitation
(c) Neutralization
(d) CFT

5. All are precipitation reactions except
(a) VDRL
(b) Kahn test
(c) Widal test
(d) Ascoli’s test

6. Which of the following act as Anaphylotoxin?
(a) C3a
(b) C3b
(c) C4b
(d) C2a

7. A positive tuberculin test is an example of
(a) Type I Hypersensitivity
(b) Type II Hypersensitivity
(c) Type III Hypersensitivity
(d) Type IV Hypersensitivity

8. Which one of the following cytokine induces fever?
(a) IL2
(b) IL1
(c) IL4
(d) IL5

9. Which Antibody mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM

10. Which Antibody is elevated in acute infection?
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM

11. Which Antibody mediates mucosal immunity?
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM

12. Prozone phenomenon is due to
(a) Excess antigen
(b) Excess antibody
(c) Hyperimmune reaction
(d) Both antigen & antibody excess

13. All the following are antigen presenting cells except
(a) T cells
(b) B cells
(c) Dendritic cells
(d) Macrophage

14. All the following are vaccines given at birth except
(a) BCG
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) DPT
(d) OPV

15. All the following are live attenuated vaccines except
(a) MMR
(b) Yellow Fever
(c) Salk polio
(d) Sabin polio

16. Grafts placed in anatomically abnormal sites are called as
(a) Orthotropic grafts
(b) Heterotrophic grafts
(c) Vital grafts
(d) Static grafts

17. Autoimmunity can be caused due to all of the following except
(a) The pressure of forbidden clones
(b) Expression of cryptic antigens
(c) Negative selection of T cells in the thymus
(d) Release of sequestered antigens

18. Cell type which lacks HLA Antigen is
(a) Monocytes
(b) Thrombocytes
(c) Neutrophil
(d) Red blood cells

19. Endotoxin acts by
(a) Classical pathway
(b) Lectin pathway
(c) Alternative pathway
(d) Both (a) & (b)

20. Overall immunity of a community towards a pathogen is called as
(a) Local immunity
(b) Herd immunity
(c) Adoptive immunity
(d) Adaptive immunity

Interview Question MCQs
Objective Questions and Answers

21. A cell without a cell wall is termed as
(a) Tonoplast
(b) Protoplast
(c) Symplast
(d) Apoplast

22. The oxygen and carbon dioxide crosses the plasma membrane by the process of
(a) Active diffusion
(b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Passive difusion
(d) Random diffusion

23. Which of the following cell organelle is involved in the breakdown of organic matter
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Mitochondria

24. Which of the following is involved in the storage of food, other nutrients, required for a cell to survive
(a) Vacuoles
(b) Lysosome
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Cell membrane

25. Which of the following is responsible for transporting, modifying and packaging proteins and lipids
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi Complex
(d) DNA

26. RNA is present in which of the following cell organelle
(a) Cell wall
(b) Ribosome
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cell membrane

27. Which of the following cells release insulin when glucose levels elevate in the body
(a) Gamma cells
(b) Beta cells
(c) Alpha cells
(d) Zeta cells

28. Sodium and Potassium pumps are examples of
(a) Plasmolysis
(b) Active transport
(c) Passive transport
(d) Osmosis

29. Gap junctions are absent in which type of cells
(a) Sperm cells
(b) Brain cells
(c) Reproductive cells
(d) Cardiac cells

30. Which of the following are phagocytic cells
(a) Neutrophils, mast cells
(b) Mast cells, macrophages
(c) Mast cells, antibodies
(d) Neutrophils, macrophages

31. Which of the following is known as powerhouse of the cell?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Lysosome
(d) Nuclei

32. Which of the following is known as suicide bag of a cell?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Golgi complex
(c) Lysosome
(d) Nuclei

33. Which part of a neuron receives information from other neurons?
(a) Cell body
(b) Axon
(c) Dendrites
(d) Myelin sheath

34. DNA is stored in which of the following cell organelle?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cytoplasm

35. Which of the following doesn’t have a cell?
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae

36. Acid fastness of M. tuberculosis is due to
(a) Peptidoglycan layer
(b) Arabinoglycan layer
(c) Mycolic acid layer
(d) Lipoarabinomannan

37. Elephantiasis is caused by
(a) Wucherei bancrofti
(b) Ascaris limbricoides
(c) Enterobius vermicularis
(d) Fasciola hepatica

38. Which of the following site is most commonly affected by diphtheria
(a) Skin
(b) Conjunctiva
(c) Faucial
(d) Kidney

39. Plaque is transmitted by
(a) Rat flea
(b) Soft tick
(c) Hard tick
(d) Louse

40. The causative agent of Syphilis is
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoea
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Treponema pallidum

41. Hand-foot-and -mouth disease is caused by
(a) HSV
(b) Coxsakie virus
(c) Measles
(d) Chicken pox

42. A Tzank smear of a scrapping obtained from a vesicle on the skin demonstrates multinucleate giant cells. Which of the following is associated with such findings
(a) HSV-1
(b) Variola major
(c) Coxackie virus
(d) Molluscum contagiosa

43. The correct sequence of manifestation seen in measles is
(a) Fever – Koplik’s spot- rash
(b) Koplik’s spot – fever – rash
(c) Rash – fever – Koplok’s spot
(d) Rush – Koplik’s spot – fever

44. During window period of patient with AIDS, best diagnostic test is
(b) Western blot
(c) Rapid test
(d) RT-PCR

45. What does ’19’ in Covid – 19 refer to
(a) There are 19 variants of the coronavirus
(b) There are 19 symptoms of coronavirus disease
(c) This is the 19 coronavirus pandemic
(d) The coronavirus and disease were identified in 2019

46. Most common fungus causing secondary infection in severe Covid-19 patients
(a) Mucor
(b) Apergillilus
(c) Candida
(d) Cryptococcus

47. What is the infective form of malaria parasite
(a) Oocyst
(b) Sporozoite
(c) Bradtzoite
(d) Tachyzoite

48. Germ tube test is a diagnostic test for
(a) Candida glabrata
(b) Candida albicans
(c) Cryptococcus neoformans
(d) Coccidioidesimmitis

49. All of the following are oncogenic RNA viruses except
(a) HTLV I
(b) HIV
(c) Hepatitis B
(d) Hepatitis C

50. Best indicator of HIV prognosis
(a) CD4T cell count
(b) CD8 T cell count