Gynecology and Obstetrics Questions Answers for Medical Students

Gynecology and Obstetrics model question papers are given in this section. Direct download links for the short answer questions obstetrics & gynecology exam are here. Hope our multiple choice questions in obstetrics and gynecology study material helps you in scoring marks.

Gynecology and Obstetrics Questions Answers

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Referring to the old exam paper/model paper helps the candidates in knowing how the question paper is going to be. However, here is an overview of obstetrics and gynecology questions and answers. Download the Gynecology and Obstetrics Previous Year Question Paper Pdf given in the section below.

Multiple Choice Questions in Obstetrics and Gynecology

1. A Prosthetic Valve Patient Switches to Heparin at Which Time during Pregnancy
A) 28 Wks
B) 32 Wks
C) 36 Wks
D) Post-Partum

2. Hegars Sign Of Pregnancy is :-
A) Uterine Contraction
B) Bluish Discoloration Of Vagina
C) Softening Of isthmus
D) Quickening

3. Bag OF Membrane ruptures :-
A) Before full dilatation of cervix
B) After full dilation of cervix
C) After head is engaged
D) With excessive Show

4. Ritgen maneuver is done in :-
A) Shoulder dystocia
B) For Delivery of head in breech presentation
C) For Delivery of legs in breech
D) For Delivery of head in normal Labor

5. All of the following are known causes of recurrent abortion except :-
A) TORCH infection
C) Rh incompatibility
D) Syphilis

6. Mcdonalds Stitch is applied in the following conditions except:-
A) Incompetent Os
B) Septate Uterus
C) Placenta Previa
D) Bad Obstetrical History

7. Blighted Ovum is-
A) Synaptic Knobs
B) Avascular villi
C) lntervillous Hemorrhage
D) None

8. A Patient went into shock immediately after normal delivery ,likely cause is –
A) Amniotic fluid embolism
C) Uterine inversion
D) Eclampsia

9. Twin peak sign is seen in-
A) Monochorionic diamniotic twins
B) Dichorinoic monoamniotic twins
C) Conjoined twins
D) Diamniotic dichorionic twins

10. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy found to be the highest.
A) Coarctation of aorta
B) Eisenmenger syndrome

11. True about intrauterine fetal death (IUD) except:-
A) Gas bubbles in great vessels
B) Halo”s Sign +ve
C) Overlapping of skull bone
D) Decreased Amniotic Fluid Volume

12. Zavenelli”s Maneuver is done in –
A) Shoulder dystocia
B) Deep transverse arrest
C) Retained placenta
D) Face presentation

13. Amniotic fluid at 38 wks in normal pregnancy is –
A) 800cc
B) 1100cc
C) 1500cc
D) 1800cc

14. Active management of third stage of labor includes all of the following except :-
A) Oxytocin injection
B) Ergometrine injection
C) Controlled cord traction
D) Gentle massage of uterus

15. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence –
A) Combined oral contraceptive pills
B) Progesterone
C) Tranexamic Acid
D) Ethamsylate

16. A 60 Year old woman with Primary Adenocarcinoma of the stomach now presents with a large complex ovarian mass and ascites. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Cystadenofibroma
B) Neurofibromatosis
C) Meig”s Syndrome
D) Krukenberg”s tumor

17. Which one is not true regarding Centchroman.
A) It is antiestrogenic
B) It acts on the endometrium
C) It is a synthetic hormone
D) It is developed in India

18. The most common side effect of inject able hormonal contraceptive is:-
A) Bone densityloss
B) Disruption of menstrual pattern
C) Risk of breast cancer
D) Dysmenorrhea

19. The Commonest side effect of Yuzpe regime is-
A) Headache
B) Nausea
C) Vomiting
D) Irregular bleeding

20. The Commonest cause of Primary Amenorrhoea is:-
A) Genital Tuberculosis
B) Ovarian Dysgenesis
C) Mullerian duct anomalies
D) Hypothyrodism

Practice Set for Medical Students

21. All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except-
A) Androgens
B) Raloxifene
C) Isoflavones
D) Tibolone

22. Primary amenorrhea is caused by the following Karyotype except :-
A) 45XO
B) 45XXX
C) 45XY
D) 45XO/46XX

23. Not a feature of Stein Leventhal Syndrome:-
A) Hirsutism and obesity
B) Hypotension
C) Bilateral Polycystic ovary
D) Amenorrhea

24. The first evidence of pubertal development in the female is usually-
A) Onset of menarche
B) Appearance of breast buds
C) Appearance of axillary and public hair
D) Onset of growth spurt.

25. A 9 Year old girl presents for evaluation of regular vaginal bleeding. History reveals thelarche at age 7 and adrenarche at age 8. The most common cause of this condition in girls is –
A) Idiopathic
B) Gonadal tumors
C) McCunee-Albright Syndrome
D) Hypothyroidism

26. The most common histological finding of endometrium in DUB is :-
A) Secretory
B) Proliferative
C) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
D) Atrophic

27. A nineteen year old female with short stature wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has a karyotype of :-
A) 47,XX+18
B) 46,XXY
C) 47,XXY
D) 45X.-

28. Strawberry cervix is seen in infection with –
A) G.Vaginalis
B) S.Scabei
C) T. Vaginalis
D) All

29. Tobacco pouch appearance of tubes is seen in –
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Tuberculosis
C) Actinomycosis
D) Sarcoidosis

30. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of-
A) Neisseria Gonorrhoease and Herpes Genitalis
B) Chalamydia Trachomatis and Herpes Genitalis.
C) Neisseria Gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia Trachomatis.
D) Syphilis and Chancroid.

31. HRT is helpful in all of the following except :-
A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Flushing
C) Osteoporosis
D) Coronary heart disease

32. A 28 Year —old lady, Rani is suspected to have polycystic ovarian disease. Sample for testing LH and FSH are best taken on the following days of menstrual cycle:
A) 1-4
B) 8-10
C) 13-15
D) 24-26

33. 16 – Year old girl presents with rapid onset hirsutism and amenorrhea ,best investigation is –
A) Testosterone estimation
B) Dihydroepiandrosterone
C) Adrenocorticoids
D) LH and FSH estimation

34. Exposure of a female fetus to androgen in early embryogenesis may arrest differentiation of :-
A) Mullerian ducts
B) Ovary
C) Urogenital sinus
D) Mesonephric ducts

35. A 19 Year old girl with painless ulcer in labia majora with everted margins, probable organism involved :-
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Chalmydia
C) Gonorrhoea
D) Herpes genital ulcer disease

36. Fern test is due to –
A) Presence of NaCL under progesterone effect
B) Presence of NaCL under estrogenic effect
D) Mucus Secretion by Glands

37. A lady With IUCD becomes pregnant with tail of IUCD being seen; next course of action is –
B) Remove the IUCD
C) Continue the pregnancy
D) Remove IUCD and Terminate Pregnancy

38. Metropathica Hemorrhagica is best treated by –
A) Curettage of uterus
B) Progestogen
C) Estrogen
D) Clomiphene citrate

39. Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage la grade is –
A) Radiotherapy
B) Chemotherapy
C) Chemotherapy + Radiotherapy
D) No treatment

40. Pain of Ovarian Carcinoma is referred to –
A) Back of thigh
B) Cervicai region
C) Anterior Surface of thigh
D) Medial Surface of thigh

41. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
A) Serous cystadenoma
B) Mucinous cystadenoma
C) Dermoid cyst
D) Theca lutein cyst

42. implantation occurs at the stage of:
A) Zygote
B) Morula
C) Blastocyst
D) Primary villi

43. The progesterone with the greatest haemostatic effect used in DUB is?
A) Medroxy progesterone.
B) Hydroxy progesterone.
C) Norethisterone.
D) Dydrogesterone.

44. All of the following are important risk factors for the development of cervical dysplasia EXCEPT:-
A) HIV infection
B) Human papilloma-virus (HPV) infection
C) Multiple sexual partners
D) Nulliparity

45. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system:
A) There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
B) This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy
C) This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia
D) Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially

46. Physical exam reveals the uterus to be about 6 wk size. Vaginal bleeding is scanty with no discernible tissue in the cervical os. There are no palpable adnexal masses. The uterus is mildly tender. Ultrasonographic exam does not reveal a gestational sac. Which of the following should be recommended?
A) Dilatation & curettage.
B) Culdocentesis.
C) Observation followed by serial B-HCG determinations.
D) Diagnostic laparoscopy.

47. The Wolffian duct in the female :
A) Develops into the fallopian tube
B) Forms the ovary
C) Forms the round ligament
D) Regresses and becomes vestigial

48. Oxytocin and vasopressin are transferred from hypothalamus to neurohypophysis through:
A) Venous channels
B) Lymphatics
C) Nerve axons
D) All of the above.

49. Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is:
A) 63 days
B) 72 days
C) 88 days
D) 120 days

50. A case of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasm belongs to high risk group if disease develops after :
A) Hydatidform Mole
B) Full term pregnancy
C) Spontaneous Abortion
D) Ectopic pregnancy

51. Foetal sex can be determined at which age?
A) 14 weeks
B) 16 weeks
C) 18 weeks
D) 20 weeks

52. Folic acid supplementation reduces the risk of?
A) Neural tube defect
B) Toxaemia of pregnancy
C) Down’s syndrome
D) Placenta previa

53. Ligamentum teres is formed after
A) Obliteration of umbilical vein
B) Obliteration of the ductus venous
C) Obliteration of ductus arteriosus
D) Obliteration of the hypogastric artery

54. The clotting factor which is not increased in pregnancy?
A) Factor2
B) Factor7
C) Factor10
D) Factor 11

55. The term placental sign denotes?
A) Alteration of FHR on pressing the head into the pelvis
B) Spotting on the expected date of period in early months of pregnancy
C) Permanent lengthening of the cord in third stage of labour
D) Slight gush of bleeding in third stage of labour

56. Earliest detection of pregnancy by ultrasound is by
A) Gestational sac
B) Foetal node
D) Foetal skeleton

57. Ideal number of antenatal visits should be
A) 6 to 8
B) 7 to 9
C) 10 to 11
D) 12 to 14

58. Vaccine absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
A) Hepatitis-B
B) Cholera vaccine
C) Rabies
D) Yellow fever

59. Following are the indications of early clamping except
A) Preterm delivery
B) Post-dated pregnancy
C) Birth asphyxia
D) Maternal diabetes

60. Living ligature of the uterus is
A) Endometrium
B) Middle layer of myometrium
C) Inner layer of myometrium
D) Perimetrium

61. All of the following drugs are effective in cervical ripening during pregnancy except
A) Prostaglandin E2
B) Oxytocin
C) Progesterone
D) Misoprostol

62. Lochia in correct order is
A) Rubia , serosa, alba
B) Serosa, rubra, alba
C) Alba, serosa, rubm
D) Alba, mucosa, Serosa

63. In comparison to breast milk, colostrum has higher content of
A) Carbohydrates
B) Fat
C) Sodium
D) Potassium

64. Contraceptive method of choice in lactating mothers
A) Barrier method
B) Progesterone only pill
C) Oral contraceptive pills
D) Lactational amenorrhoea

65. All are the complications of formula fed baby over human milk fed baby except:
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis
B) Otitis media
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Vitamin K deficiency

66. The cause of postpartum blues is
A) Decreased estrogen
B) Decreased progesterone
C) Increased prolactin
D) Decreased estrogen and progesterone

67. Most common cause of first trimester abortions?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Syphilis
C) Rhesus isoimmunisation
D) Cervical incompetence

68. A women presents with amenorrhoea of two months duration, lower abdominal pain, facial pallor_ fainting and shock. Diagnosis is
A) Ruptured ovarian cyst
B) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C) Threatened abortion
D) Septic abortion

69. Snowstorm appearance is seen in USG of
A) Hydatiform mole
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Anencephaly
D) None of the above

70. Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma in pregnancy
A) Lungs
B) Brain
C) Spine
D) Liver

71. Hydatiform is a disease of
A) Amnion
B) Chorion
C) Uterus
D) Udecidua

72. A positive Stallworthy sign is suggestive of
A) Twin pregnancy
B) Breech presentation
C) Vesicular mole
D) Low lying placenta

73. Placenta previa is characterized by all expect
A) Painless bleeding
B) Causeless bleeding
C) Recurrent bleeding
D) Presents after first trimester

74. In Bishop score everything is included except
A) Effacement of cervix
B) Dilatation of cervix
C) Station of head
D) Interspinal diameter

75. In ectopic pregnancy decidua is shed as
A) Decidua vera
B) Decidua basalis
C) Decidua capsulans
D) Decidua rubra

76. In which of the following heart disease maternal mortality during pregnancy is highest —
A) Coarctation of aorta
D) Eisenmenger syndrome

77. Which of the following pelvic structure support the vagina except-
A) Perineal body
B) Pelvic diaphragm
C) Levator Ani Muscle
D) Infundibulopelvic ligament

78. Maximum function of corpus luteum occur-
A) At ovulation
B) Before ovulation
C) Days after ovulation
D) 8-9 Days after ovulation

79. Following are the features of inhibin except-
A) Non-steroidal water soluble protein
B) Secreted by Graafian follicle
C) Stimulates FSH secretion
D) Increase secretion of inhibin occur in PCOD

80. The cut-off point of serum Estrogen level for the diagnosis of ovarian failure-
A) 10 pg/ml
B) 20 pg/ml
C) 30 pg/ml
D) 40 pg/ml

81. All of the following associated with PCOD except
A) Ovarian carcinoma
B) Endometrial carcinoma
C) Insulin resistance
D) Osteoporosis

82. Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is associarted with
A) Ovarian agencies
B) Absent fallopian tube
C) Vaginal atresia
D) Bicornuate uterus

83. First sign of puberty is
A) Breast budding
B) Growth spurt
C) Menarche
D) Public and axillary hair growth

84. Clue cells are seen in
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Gonorrhea

85. Strawberry vagina seen in —
A) Candidiasis
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Herpes

86. Postpartum vesicovaginal fistula best repaired after-
A) At 6 week
B) At 8 week
C) At 3 months
D) At 6 months

87. Kegel exercise should be begin Immediately after delivery
A) Immediate after delivery
B) 24 hours after delivery
C) 3 weeks after delivery
D) 6 weeks after delivery

88. According to WHO criteria minimum normal sperm count is
A) 10 million/ml
B) 15 million/ml
C) 40 million/ml
D) 60 million/ml

89. Best investigation to assess tubal patency
B) Laparotomy
C) Laparoscopic chromotubation
D) Rubin test

90. Pearl index indicates-
A) Malnutrition
B) Population
C) Contraception failure
D) Low birth weight

91. Rise in body temperature after ovulation is due to
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone

92. Red degeneration in uterine fibroid is most common in
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Puerperium

93. All of following drugs decrease vascularity of fibroid except —
A) GnRH agonist
B) Danazol
C) Mifepristone
D) Clomiphene citrate

94. Pain in eadometriosis correlates with-
A) Depth of invasion
B) CA 125
C) Multiple sites
D) Stage of disease

95. All of the following are known risk factor of endometrial carcinoma except –
A) Obesity
B) Family history
C) SE of HRT
D) Early menopause

96. All are seen in gestational diabetes except
A) Previous macrosomic baby
B) Obesity
C) Malformation
D) Polyhydroamnios

97. 30 Year old primi female with 36 week of pregnancy with BP160/110 and urinary albumin is 3+ and platelet count 80000/cmm What will be the management except?
A) MgSO4
B) Enalapril
C) Labetalol
D) Urgent LSCS

98. Earliest sign of MgSO4 toxicity:
A) Cardiac arrest
B) Anuria
C) Respiratory depression
D) Depression of deep tendon reflex

99. Anti-tubercular drug contra indicated in pregnancy
A) Rifampicin
C) Streptomycin
D) Ethambutol

100. Non immune hydrops foetalis is seen in all of the following condition except:
A) Parvovirus
B) Rh-incompatibility
C) Chromosomal anomaly
D) Thalassemia