Radiodiagnosis MCQ

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Radiodiagnosis MCQ

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MCQ on Radiodiagnosis

1. The acute exposure threshold dose for the manifestation of early transient erythema in skin is
(1) 0.5 Gy
(2) 1 Gy
(3) 2 Gy
(4) 3 Gy

2. The detector used in the TLD is
(1) CaSO4 : Dy
(2) Gas detector
(3) CdSO4
(4) Ag2O

3. Which of the following is a stochastic effect ?
(1) Erythema
(2) Epilation
(3) Infertility
(4) Cancer

4. Which of the following scenario is a medical exposure ?
(1) Exposure to scattered radiation by the patient comforters
(2) Exposure to background radiation
(3) Exposure to stray radiation by the patients waiting at the waiting area
(4) Exposure to scattered radiation by the radiation worker

5. During an interventional radiologic procedure, an interventional radiologist’s fingers are exposed to a dose rate of 1 mSv/h at 1 cm from the patient. What would be the approximate dose rate the interventional radiologist’s fingers would be receiving at 50 cm distance away from the patient ?
(1) 0.01 mSv/h
(2) 0.04 mSv/h
(3) 0.0004 mSv/h
(4) 0.25 mSv/h

6. Which of the following X-ray tube detector movements is used in third generation CT ?
(1) Rotate-fixed
(2) Translate-rotate
(3) Rotate-rotate
(4) None of the above

7. In CT, pitch is known as
(1) Table travel per X-ray tube rotation
(2) Table travel to the total number of images acquired
(3) Table travel per X-ray tube rotation to the total beam collimation
(4) Number of images acquired during one X-ray tube rotation

8. Choose the true statement :
(1) The CT number is based on the linear attenuation coefficient of the water only
(2) The CT number is based on the linear attenuation coefficient of the water and the material of interest
(3) The CT number is based on the linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest only
(4) The CT number is never based on the linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest

9. Which of the following affects the noise level in CT ?
(1) Pixel Size
(2) Slice thickness
(3) Radiation Exposure
(4) All of the above

10. In a helical CT scan, the dose-length product (DLP) can be obtained by
(1) The product of CTDIvol and the scan length
(2) The product of dose within a slice and the ‘k’ factor
(3) In vivo dosimetry
(4) Summation of dose within a slice and the scan length

11. A 35-year-old man was involved in a RTA and sustained a comminuted open fracture of left femur. No other major injury is identified. After 48 hours he becomes acutely short of breath with widespread ill-defined peripheral infiltrates on a supine CXR. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
(2) Fat emboli
(3) Hospital acquired pneumonia
(4) Pulmonary contusions

12. A 15-year-old boy is noted to have a solitary lytic lesion expanding the cortex of proximal humerus. An MRI demonstrates multiple fluid levels. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(2) Enchondroma
(3) Giant cell tumor
(4) Simple bone cyst

13. A 6-year-old boy undergoes pelvic radiograph for complaints of limp. It reveals loss of height of right femoral head with fragmentation and sclerosis of epiphysis. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Developmental dysplasia of the hip
(2) Perthe’s disease
(3) Septic arthritis
(4) Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

14. Ideal treatment strategy for renal FMD
(1) Angioplasty
(2) Surgical grafting
(3) Autotransplantation
(4) Nephrectomy

15. First percutaneous angioplasty was performed by
(1) Berenstein
(2) Dotter
(3) Rosen
(4) McNamara

16. Reverse halo sign is seen in which of following condition ?
(1) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
(2) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
(3) Idiopathic non-specific interstitial pneumonia
(4) Desquamative interstitial pneumonia

17. A young boy has history of fall and sustains injury to the right knee with which extends from articular surface to the epiphyseal plate but not extending to metaphysis. What is Salter-Harris classification of this injury ?
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

18. A 77-year-old boy having soft blue coloured growth on his right hand. X-ray of hand shows multiple enchondromas. Which of the following feature confirm the diagnosis of Maffucci’s syndrome rather than Ollier’s syndrome ?
(1) Bilateral predominantly symmetric disease
(2) Soft tissue hemangioma
(3) Discrepancy in arm length
(4) First degree relative also involved

19. According to Revised Atlanta Classification of pancreatitis thick walled heterogeneous fluid collection in setting of acute necrotizing pancreatitis after 4 week is called
(1) Acute peripancreatic fluid collection
(2) Acute necrotic collection
(3) Pseudocyst
(4) Walled off necrosis

20. Which of the following is not a CT feature of hypoperfusion complex in abdominal trauma patient ?
(1) Increased caliber of IVC
(2) Intense adrenal gland enhancement
(3) Increased bowel wall mucosal enhancement
(4) Increased renal cortical enhancement

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. Which of following is specialized response assessment criteria for GIST after imatinib treatment ?
(1) WHO
(3) CHOI

22. Premature closure of sagittal suture is called as
(1) Scaphocephaly
(2) Brachycephaly
(3) Plagiocephaly
(4) Trigonocephaly

23. Which of the following is false regarding Infantile hepatic hemangioma ?
(1) Previously known as Infantile hemangioendothelioma
(2) Most common benign hepatic tumor in infants
(3) Contrast CT shows multiple peripheral and centripetal enhancing lesions with persistent delayed enhancement.
(4) Dilatation of aorta below the level of celiac artery

24. Comet -tail sign is seen in
(1) Ureteric stone
(2) Phleboliths
(3) Renal stone
(4) Bladder stone

25. All are causes of small-bowel air fluid levels except
(1) Small-bowel obstruction
(2) Hyperkalemia
(3) Enema cleansing
(4) Paralytic ileus

26. Which of the following is a Hepato- biliary specific MR contrast agent ?
(1) Gadodiamide
(2) Gadoxetate
(3) Gadopentetate
(4) Gadoteridol

27. Which of the following is not a feature of Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
(1) Renal cell carcinoma
(2) CNS Hemangioblastomas
(3) Endolymphatic sac tumor
(4) Acoustic neuroma

28. False statement about Diffuse axonal injury (DAN) is
(1) Also called Traumatic axonal stretch injury
(2) Symptoms are disproportionate to imaging findings
(3) Best detected by DWI MRI, FLAIR (non-hemorrhagis) or SWI (hemorrhagic)
(4) In Stage 2 (Adams and Gennarelli staging) lesions are seen in dorsolateral midbrain and upper

29. Luftsichel sign seen in collapse of which lobe of lung ?
(1) Right upper lobe
(2) Right lower lobe
(3) Left upper lobe
(4) Left lower lobe

30. All of following statements are true about sarcoidosis, except
(1) Small, well-defined nodules occurring in perilymphatic distribution.
(2) Mediastinal lymph node enlargement, usually symmetric.
(3) Sarcoidosis stages correlate with disease duration of pulmonary functional abnormalities.
(4) Stage 2, defined as intrathoracic adenopathy associated with pulmonary parenchymal disease.

31. Which of the following is called as Grandmother tumor of pancreas ?
(1) Serous cystadenoma
(2) Mucinous cystadenoma
(3) Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN)
(4) Solid and pseudopapillary neoplasm (SPEN)

32. Which of the following is not a HRCT feature of Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis ?
(1) Honey combing
(2) Tractional bronchiectasis
(3) Peripheral and subpleural predominance
(4) Extensive ground glass opacity beyond the area of fibrosis

33. All of the following are multiple sclerosis MS variants/ subtypes, except
(1) Marburg disease
(2) Lyme disease
(3) Schilder type
(4) Balo type

34. Eye of the tiger sign on brain MRI seen in which of following ?
(1) Pantothenate kinase-associated neurodegeneration (PKAN)
(2) Canavan disease
(3) Krabbes disease
(4) Alexander disease

35. In trauma patient FAST denotes
(1) Fluid Assesment with Sonography in Trauma
(2) Focused Assesment with Sonography in Trauma
(3) Fast Assesment with Sonography in Trauma
(4) Fine Assesment with Sonography in Trauma

36. Which of the following interaction of X-ray photon with matter do not occur in diagnostic energy range and HAVE no role in diagnostic radiology ?
(1) Coherent scattering
(2) Photoelectric effect
(3) Compton scattering
(4) Pair production

37. Definition of Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is
(1) Absolute increase in serum creatinine of 0.25 mg/dl
(2) Absolute increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dl
(3) Absolute increase in serum creatinine of 0.75 mg/dl
(4) Absolute increase in serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dl

38. A 10-year-old boy presented with fracture of the left proximal humerus. Plain radiographs show a pathological fracture and underlying lytic lesion in the metaphysis of the proximal humerus with a small bone fragment in the floor of the lesion. MRI features include intermediate signal on T1 and high signal on T2 with a fluid-fluid level. What is the most likely diagnosis of the underlying bony lesion ?
(1) Unicameral bone cyst
(2) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(3) Telangiectatic osteosarcoma
(4) Giant cell tumour

39. A 40-year-old man presents with right knee pain. Plain radiography shows a large joint effusion. MRI of the knee shows multiple foci of low signal intensity seen in the synovium on T1, T2 and gradient-echo sequences. There is a moderate joint effusion. The most likely diagnosis is
(1) Pigmented villonodular synovitis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Synovial sarcoma
(4) Synovial chondromatosis

40. A 70-year-old man presents after falling down stairs and sustaining injury to the neck. An open-mouth view shows increased space between the dens and medial border of lateral masses of Cl. CT shows fracture of the anterior and posterior arch of the Cl vertebra. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Hangman’s fracture
(2) Clay shoveller’s fracture
(3) Jefferson fracture
(4) Extension teardrop fracture

41. A 35-year-old woman with mucocutaneous pigmentation on the hands and feet and in a circumoral distribution presents with cramping abdominal pain. She is found to have iron deficiency anaemia. Plain radiography of the abdomen suggested small bowel obstruction. Contrast-enhanced CT demonstrates jejunal intussusception. The most likely diagnosis is
(1) Familial adenomatous polyposis
(2) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
(3) Leiomyoma small bowel
(4) Melanoma with bowel metastases

42. Which of the following is Iso-osmolar Non-ionic Contrast Media ?
(1) Lodixanol
(2) Lohexol
(3) Lopamidol
(4) lopromide

43. A true hermaphrodite can be distinguished from a pseudohermaphrodite by :
(1) chromosome complement
(2) presence of both testicular and ovarian tissue
(3) behaviour
(4) appearance of external genitalia

44. A 2-year-old child present to emergency department with suspected fracture of ulna. On radiograph old fracture also seen with inconsistent history given by parents. Clinically non accidental injury (NAI) was suspected and skeletal survey performed. Which of the following is false regarding NAI ?
(1) Fractures of multiple ages
(2) Classic metaphyseal lesion
(3) Rib fractures, especially of anterior end
(4) Epiphyseal separation

45. An 8-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent chest infections. The chest radiograph shows a mass lesion in left lower zone. Contrast enhanced CT shows a 6 cm lobulated, multicystic lesion in the left lower lobe containing solid and cystic components. There is a feeding artery from the thoracic aorta into the lesion and draining via pulmonary vein. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Extralobar sequestration
(2) Intralobar sequestration
(3) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
(4) Abscess