Neonatology MCQ

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Neonatology MCQ

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MCQ on Neonatology

1. Which device should be readily available as a back up wherever resuscitation may be needed, in case compressed gas source fails?
(1) Self inflating bag
(2) T piece resuscitator
(3) Flow inflating bag
(4) All of the above

2. Which is not a reliable mean to assess neonatal heart rate at the time of resuscitation?
(1) Palpating base of umbilical cord
(2) Cardiac monitor
(3) Pulse oximetry
(4) Auscultation

3. Below what gestational age, New NRP guideline recommends non initiation of resuscitation?
(1) 22 weeks
(2) 23 weeks
(3) 24 weeks
(4) 20 weeks

4. Which antenatal screening modality has highest pickup rate for downs syndrome?
(1) First trimester screen with NT measurement
(2) Second trimester Triple screen
(3) Second trimester Quad screen
(4) First trimester nasal bone hypoplasia

5. Where are the stem cell that renew the epithelium of gut found?
(1) Near the bottom of the crypt
(2) In the connective tissue, underlying the gut epithelium
(3) In the villi, underlying the dead outer layer of keratinocytes
(4) N the inner cell mass

6. False statement about fetal CTG monitoring, comparing intermittent auscultation is?
(1) No significant difference in perinatal death
(2) Signifiant difference in cerebral palsy
(3) Reduced neonatal seizures
(4) Increased surgical intervention

7. All are causes of intrauterine growth retardation, except?
(1) Anemia
(2) Pregnancy induced hypertension
(3) Maternal heart disease
(4) Gestational diabetes

8. Which one is not an ECHO finding in hypovolemic shock?
(1) IVC Collapsibility index >55%
(2) Kissing small left ventricle cavity small right atrium and ventricle
(3) Variation >15% in Left ventricle outflow tract velocity time integral with respiration
(4) Left ventricle ejection fraction

9. Match the following :
a. Fetal alcohol syndrome 1. Ventricular septal defect
b. Maternal diabetes 2. Atrial septal defect
c. Downs syndrome 3. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Congenital rubella 4. Transposition of great arteries
(1) a:2, b:1, c:4, d:3
(2) a:3, b:4, c:2, d: 1
(3) a:2, b:4, c:1, d:3
(4) a:1, b:4, c:2, d:3

10. Which ionotrope doesn’t have any effect on beta receptors?
(1) Dopamine
(2) Dobutamine
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Norepinephrine

11. Pick the odd one.
(1) COIN
(2) SPPORT
(3) BOOST
(4) HIPSTER

12. Which equipment is based on Bear Lambert law?
(1) Ventilator
(2) Pulse oximeter
(3) Infusion pump
(4) Therapeutic hypothermia machine

13. What is the recommended position to fix skin temperature probe?
(1) Right hypochondrium
(2) Left hypochondrium
(3) Right flank
(4) Chest

14. Which one is not a component in Downe’s score?
(1) Respiratory rate
(2) Nasal flare
(3) Grunting
(4) Retraction

15. Which biochemical marker is utilised for adjusted fortification?
(1) Blood urea
(2) Serum Creatinine
(3) Serum Ammonia
(4) Serum Albumin

16. Which drug doesn’t cause cardiac teratogenicity?
(1) Phenytoin
(2) Carbamezapine
(3) Lithium
(4) Phenobarbitone

17. Mid facial hypoplasia, cleft lip and palate, microcephaly, ventricular septal defect and aplasia cutis congenita is indicative of which chromosomal abnormality?
(1) Trisomy 13
(2) Trisomy 18
(3) Trisomy 21
(4) Monosomy 45 X

18. Infant of diabetic mother with polycythemia and umbilical catheter in situ is having hematuria, renal flank mass and hypertension. What is most probable reason?
(1) Renal vein thrombosis
(2) Renal artery thrombosis
(3) Aortic thrombus
(4) Inferior vena cava thrombosis

19. At what gestational age urine production starts?
(1) 13 weeks
(2) 12 weeks
(3) 14 weeks
(4) 10 weeks

20. What is unlikely in Hyperammonia and abnormal urine organic acid?
(1) Urea cycle defect
(2) Congenital lactic acidosis
(3) Organic academia
(4) Fatty oxidation defect

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. Autosomal dominant Craniosynostosis, midfacial hypoplasia, syndactyly and CNS malformation is suggestive of which syndrome?
(1) Apert syndrome
(2) Pfeiffer syndrome
(3) Crouzon syndrome
(4) Carpenter syndrome

22. What is not true regarding sumernumerary nipples?
(1) Also known as Polythelia
(2) Never grow
(3) Present along embryonic mammary line
(4) Excision may be needed if glandular tissues is present

23. Which is not a transient skin lesion in neonate?
(1) Benign cephalic histiocytosis
(2) Neonatal cephalic pustulosis
(3) Dermal melanocytosis
(4) Congenital melanocytic nevi

24. A new-born present with jaundice, mild anemia and splenomegaly. A complete blood count with differential reveal spherocytosis. Reticulocytes are also increased. Parents informed that several of the relative are also suffering from same illness. The infant’s condition is most likely by defective:
(1) Clathrin
(2) Spectrin
(3) Dynein
(4) Connexon

25. PIVKA level are useful to diagnose?
(1) Vitamin A deficiency
(2) Vitamin K deficiency
(3) Vitamin D deficiency
(4) Vitamin E deficiency

26. Adequate renal function and normal amniotic fluid production is NOT required for which one of the following actions in newborn?
(1) Lung development
(2) Excretion of waste products
(3) Prevention of infection
(4) Temperature maintenance

27. Which statement is true regarding prophylactic surfactant (within 15 min after birth) to intubated preterm neonate (<30 weeks)?
(1) Decreased duration of ventilation
(2) Decreased incidence of BPD
(3) Decreased incidence of PDA
(4) Decreased incidence of pneumothorax

28. Which of the following is true of small for gestational age (SGA) babies?
(1) SGA is usually defined as birth weight <3 rd centile
(2) Asymmetrical IUGR usually reflects a fetal disease process
(3) Small mothers tend to have small babies
(4) IUGR babies have more respiratory distress at birth.

29. Which of the following condition is not associated with neonatal hypercalcemia?
(1) Distal renal tubular acidosis
(2) Subcutaneous fat necrosis
(3) Congenital lactase deficiency
(4) Williams beauren syndrome

30. The blood component constituent most implicated in transfusion associated graft versus host disease is?
(1) Erythrocyte Rh D antigen
(2) Donor T cell lymphocytes
(3) Inflammatory interleukins
(4) Anti-neutrophilic antibodies

31. In high frequency ventilation, which variable affects the oxygenation most?
(1) MAP
(2) Amplitude
(3) FiO2
(4) Rate

32. Which of the following is least likely present in infant of diabetic mother?
(1) Hypocalcemia
(2) Hypomagnesemia
(3) Hyponatremia
(4) Hypoglycemia

33. Which of following single parameter should be changed in a ventilated baby with ABG showing Hyperoxia and hypercarbia.
(1) Peak inspiratory pressure
(2) Positive end expiratory pressure
(3) Respiratory rate
(4) I:E ratio

34. The plasma constituent most commonly associated with transfusion associated acute lung injury is?
(1) Anti neutrophil and anti HLA antibody
(2) ABO alloantibodies
(3) Anti IgA antibodies
(4) Anti T agglutinins

35. Which chromosome’s imprinting defect is involved in transient neonatal diabetes mellitus?
(1) Chromosome 7
(2) Chromosome 6
(3) Chromosome 11
(4) Chromosome 17

36. All are the benefits of breast feeding, EXCEPT?
(1) Decreased incidence of late haemorrhagic diseases of newborn
(2) Decreased incidence of childhood allergies
(3) Decreased incidence of necrotising enterocolitis
(4) Decreased risk of viral gastroenteritis in infancy

37. Which of the following is a disadvantage of unmodified cow milk feeding?
(1) Hyponatremia
(2) Hypoglycemia
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Hyperphosphatemia

38. Which is not an essential criterion for therapeutic hypothermia?
(1) Gestational age >36 weeks & Age <6 hours
(2) Evidence of asphyxia (Apgar <5 at 10 min or Cord blood base deficit >16 mmo/L)
(3) Moderate to severe encephalopathy
(4) EEG Changes

39. Which is not a poor prognostic sign in neonatal bacterial meningitis?
(1) Leucocytosis at admission
(2) Seizures persisting beyond 72 hours after admission
(3) Focal neurological deficit
(4) Low birth weight

40. Which of the following cardiac condition will not respond to PGEI infusion?
(1) Transposition of great arteries
(2) Pulmonary atresia
(3) Hypolastic left heart syndrome
(4) TAPVC

41. Neonate with non-bilious vomit, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and dehydration without any abdominal lump. Most probable diagnosis is?
(1) Duodenal atresia
(2) Gastric antral web
(3) Malrotation
(4) Congenital Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

42. Which is not a cause of prolonged unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) ABO incompatibility
(3) Cephalematoma
(4) G6PD deficiency

43. Which intracranial pathology is better picked up by CT scan than MRI brain?
(1) Ghltosis
(2) Intracranial hemorrhage
(3) Intracranial calcification
(4) Periventricular leucomalacia

44. Which vaccine is not to be given after IVIG administration?
(1) Measles vaccine
(2) DPT vaccine
(3) Injectable polio vaccine
(4) Influenza vaccine

45. What is Neonatal Mortality rate of India in 2020?
(1) 28.5
(2) 26.5
(3) 23.5
(4) 24.5