General Surgery Practice Set
General Surgery Practice Set paper for the written examination is given below. Candidates who are looking for General Surgery exam Practice Set paper can find in this section. The applied candidates who are getting prepared for the General Surgery can view this page for the General Surgery Last Ten Years Practice Set Papers.
Download the General Surgery Practice Set & Solutions & make it as a reference for your exam preparation. Take advantage of these General Surgery Practice Set Papers in a proper manner to get qualifying Marks. Last 5 years General Surgery Practice Set Papers provided here. Candidates who are applied for the above exam can check and download the General Surgery Practice Set Papers from here.
Practice Set of General Surgery
1. Splenic vein thrombosis is most commonly caused by –
(1) chronic pancreatitis
(2) carcinoma pancreas
(3) spleen trauma
(4) perforation of duodenum
2. The most common benign lung tumour is –
(1) Fibroma
(2) Teratoma
(3) hamartoma
(4) alveolar adenoma
3. Strawberry gallbladder is seen in –
(1) Cholesterolosis
(2) Adenomyomatosis
(3) cholesterol polyposis
(4) None
4. Splenectomy can lead to –
(1) Leukopenia
(2) Thrombocytosis
(3) Thrombocytopenia
(4) Thrombocytopenia and Leukopenia
5. Thick mucus extruding from ampulla at ERCP is diagnostic of –
(1) Intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasms
(2) Mucinous Cystic Neoplasm
(3) Serous Cystic Neoplasm
(4) Pseudocyst of Pancreas
6. Which of the following criteria is not included in Ranson’s scoring?
(1) WBC> 16,000
(2) Blood glucose > 200 gm/dl
(3) AST > 300 units/L
(4) LDH > 350 units/L
7. 40 year old admitted with fracture shaft of femur in a few days has developed respiratory distress, SPO and petechial rashes, diagnosis is –
(1) Crush syndrome
(2) Fat embolism
(3) Pulmonary embolism
(4) Haemolytic anaemia
8. Gold standard for diagnosis of Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction is –
(1) HIDA scan
(2) MRCP
(3) EUS
(4) ERCP + manometry
9. Which of the following is not a finding of acute pancreatitis in abdominal X-ray?
(1) Sentinel loop sign
(2) Colon cut-off sign
(3) Double duct sign
(4) Renal halo sign
10. Medial boundary of femoral ring is formed by –
(1) imguinal ligament
(2) pectineal ligament
(3) lacunar ligament
(4) septum separating it from femoral vein
11. Valentino’s syndrome is –
(1) right iliac fossa pain in gastric perforation
(2) epigastric pain in gastric perforation
(3) right hypochondriac pain in gastric perforation
(4) pelvic pain in gastric perforation
12. Commonest clinical variant of basal all carcinoma is –
(1) Keratotic
(2) Morpheaform
(3) Nodular
(4) superficial
13. False regarding tuberculous peritonitis –
(1) ascites is common
(2) peritoneal nodules are common
(3) abdominal pain is less common
(4) intestinal obstruction may be managed conservatively
14. Tear drop fracture of spine is caused by –
(1) hyperflexion
(2) axial compression
(3) distraction-flexion
(4) hyperextension
15. Cleft palate repair is done in –
(1) 3-6 months
(2) 6-18 months
(3) 12-18 months
(4) 18-24 months
16. Stone formed in alkaline urine –
(1) cysteine
(2) calcium oxalate
(3) calcium phosphate
(4) uric acid
17. For cervical tubercular lymphadenopathy, the bacteria gain entrance commonly through –
(1) Co-existing pulmonary tuberculosis
(2) Renal tuberculosis
(3) Gastro-intestinal tuberculosis
(4) Tonsils
18. In situ ablation of liver secondaries can be done by using following modalities, except-
(1) Ultrasonic waves
(2) Cryotherapy
(3) Alcohol
(4) Radiofrequency
19. Earliest sign of renal tuberculosis on IVP –
(1) Splaying of calyces
(2) Caliectasis
(3) Hydronephrosis
(4) Moth eaten calyx
20. Triad of symptoms and signs of haematuria, loin pain and a palpable loin mass of renal tumour is present in –
(1) less than 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 30%
(4) 40%
| Practice Set | MCQs |
| Quiz | Questions and Answers |
21. Parathyroid adenoma can be differentiated from hyperplasia, if there is –
(1) presence of excess of chief cells
(2) high level of parathormone
(3) infiltration of capsule
(4) identifying hyperplasia of all four glands at surgery in parathyroid hyperplasia
22. The most sensitive test to detect GI bleed is –
(1) selective angiography
(2) radiolabeled erythrocytes scanning
(3) iodine131 fibrinogen studies
(4) stool for occult blood
23. A patient of partial gastrectomy presents with neurological symptoms, most probable diagnosis is:
(1) Folic acid deficiency
(2) Thiamine deficiency
(3) Vitamin B12 deficiency
(4) Iron deficiency
24. Which muscles are first affected in tetanus?
(1) Face
(2) upper limb
(3) lower limb
(4) respiratory
25. Umbilical hernia in children can be treated conservatively upto age of –
(1) 1 year
(2) 2 years
(3) 5 years
(4) 14 years
26. Which of the following does not help in visualisation of the entire small bowel?
(1) Standard enteroscopy
(2) Capsule endoscopy
(3) Single balloon enteroscopy
(4) Sonde endoscopy
27. Most common complication following ERCP is –
(1) Hemorrhage
(2) duodenal perforation
(3) sepsis
(4) pancreatitis
28. Anatomical classification of anorectal anomalies based on level at which the blind ending rectal pouch ends i.e. low, intermediate or high is in relation to –
(1) Puborectalis
(2) levator ani
(3) external sphincter
(4) perineal body
29. Following resuscitation a patient with bleeding oesophageal varices should be treated initially
(1) Sclerotherapy
(2) Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
(3) Propranolol
(4) Surgery
30. Minimum amount of free air that is detected under diaphragm in hollow organ perforation is –
(1) 5 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 50 ml
(4) 100 ml
31. According to Bormann’s classification, linitis plastica is which type of gastric carcinoma?
(1) Type I
(2) Type II
(3) Type III
(4) Type IV
32. In Guyon’s tunnel syndrome, nerve involved is –
(1) Median nerve
(2) Radial nerve
(3) Tibial nerve
(4) Ulnar nerve
33. True about clinical audit is –
(1) clearly defined questions
(2) randomization
(3) designed to test a hypothesis
(4) measures against a standard
34. Discharge criteria for day care surgery are all, except –
(1) passed urine
(2) vitals stable for 1 hour
(3) ability to dress and walk
(4) taken complete meal
35. Deltopectoral flap used for reconstruction after oral surgery is based on –
(1) subscapularis artery
(2) radial artery
(3) 1st, 2nd, 3rd perforating vessel from internal mammary vessel
(4) thoracoacromial artery
36. 25-year-old woman comes with complaints of painless mottled cyanosis of fingers, diagnosis is –
(1) Raynaud’s disease
(2) Raynaud’s syndrome
(3) Acrocyanosis
(4) Thromboangiitis obliterans
37. All of the following are essential for formation of gallstones, except –
(1) Lithogenic bile
(2) Bile stasis
(3) Nucleation
(4) Crystallization
38. Which of the following is not a component of ERAS pathway?
(1) Prolonged pre-operative fasting
(2) Pain blocks
(3) Goal directed fluid therapy
(4) Prevention of post-operative nausea, vomiting
39. What system is used to classify the quality of evidence?
(1) PICO
(2) GRADE
(3) STROBE
(4) PRISMA
40. Sentinel node biopsy is done for all malignancy, except –
(1) CA breast
(2) Melanoma
(3) CA penis
(4) BCC
41. Congenital cystic fibrosis of pancreas occurs when there is mutation in CFTR gene on chromosome –
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 11
(4) 9
42. Most common site of stricture post infection. to urethra –
(1) Bulbar
(2) Submeatal
(3) Prostatic
(4) membranous
43. Cardinal sign of acute pancreatitis is –
(1) hiccough
(2) vomiting with retching
(3) cough
(4) pain
44. True about carotid body tumour is –
(1) E.N.A.C. is diagnostic
(2) origin from nonchromaffin tissue
(3) painful non mobile lump in neck
(4) Most commonly is seen with people living at high altitude
45. Embolectomy should be done after blockage of artery within ……….. hrs of golden period.
(1) 1 hr.
(2) 2 hrs.
(3) 6 hrs.
(4) 24 hrs.
46. Nesbitt procedure is done for –
(1) Ischemic priapism
(2) Non-ischemic priapism
(3) Peyronie’s disease
(4) Carcinoma penis
47. Which is false statement for cleft palate?
(1) 50% recover speech after operation
(2) 45% associated with cleft lip
(3) surgery should be done at 1 year
(4) associated with hearing loss
48. In CEAP classification for chronic venous disorder, C4 indicates –
(1) Oedema of limb with symptoms
(2) Pigmentation or eczema with symptoms.
(3) Atrophie blanche without symptoms
(4) Malleolar flare without symptoms
49. Normal pressure hydrocephalus presents with all, except –
(1) Gait disturbance
(2) Parinaud’s syndrome
(3) Cognitive decline
(4) Incontinence
50. Which hormone level is useful to differentiate azoospermia due to obstruction from severe testicular failure?
(1) Testosterone
(2) FSH
(3) LH
(4) Estrogen
51. CSF production from the walls of the ventricles and the choroid plexus is about –
(1) 20 ml per hour
(2) 50 ml per hour
(3) 100 ml per hour
(4) 150 ml per hour
52. Most common site of abdominal abscess formation is –
(1) Hepatorenal space
(2) Space of Bogaro
(3) Paracolic gutter
(4) pelvic
53. Light weight mesh are generally referred to as –
(1) Mesh<40 gm/m2
(2) Mesh> 80 gm/m2
(3) Biological Mesh
(4) Polycellulose
54. A pantaloons hernia in same patient is usually a –
(1) Lateral hernia
(2) Medial hernia
(3) Sliding hernia
(4) Both Lateral and Medial hernia
55. Meleney’s gangrene is –
(1) Necrotizing fasciitis affecting perineal region
(2) Necrotising fasciitis affecting abdominal wall
(3) gas gangrene of lower limb
(4) actinomycosis of jaw
56. Most radiosensitive phase of cell cycle is –
(1) G
(2) G2
(3) S
(4) M
57. Cobra or adder head appearance is seen in –
(1) Cystic kidney
(2) Horseshoe kidney
(3) Ureterocele
(4) Duplex ureter
58. Delphian nodes are –
(1) Supraclavicular
(2) posterior triangle
(3) paratracheal
(4) pretracheal
59. What is the pathogenesis of post varicocelectomy hydrocele?
(1) Increased testicular venous pressure
(2) Lymphatic obstruction
(3) Soft tissue fibrosis
(4) Arterial injury
