# ITI Electrical Questions and Answers

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## MCQ Objective Questions and Answers for ITI Electrical Students

1. The type code printed on the zener is BZC9V1, where ‘B’ indicates :
(A) Germanium
(B) Silicon
(C) Carbon
(D) boron

2. The number of diodes used for a centre tapped full wave rectifier is :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

3. Expansion of SPDT is :
(A) Single Phase Double Throw
(B) Single Pole Double Throw
(C) Single Phase Dual Throw
(D) Single Pole Dual Throw

4. Open circuit test is conducted on a transformer to determine :
(A) eddy current loss
(B) copper loss
(C) hysteresis loss
(D) core loss

5. The number of complete cycles produced in one second is called :
(A) frequency
(B) period
(C) amplitude
(D) peak value

6. The function of tweezer is to :
(A) grip and hold the cylindrical objects
(B) cut small diameter wires and cables
(C) hold light weight and very small components and wires
(D) remove the sheath and insulation from cables and boards

7. 1 joule = :
(A) 1 Nm
(B) 1 Nm2
(C) 2 N2m2
(D) 1 kgm/sec2

8. The melting point of aluminium is :
(A) 810°C
(B) 660°C
(C) 560°C
(D) 360°C

9. Specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by :
(A) lactometer
(B) pyrometer
(C) hydrometer
(D) galvanometer

10. Find the square root of 15376 :
(A) 414
(B) 124
(C) 214
(D) 324

11. Which type of drawing sheet having biggest area?
(A) A3
(B) A2
(C) A1
(D) A0

12. What is the potential energy in a body, mass 5 kg on top of a pole 20 m high?
(A) 100 j
(B) 980 j
(C) 1000 j
(D) 9800 j

13. Which is the example of mandatory sign?
(A) Risk of electric shock
(B) Wear safety belt
(C) Smoking prohibited
(D) All of the above

14. The unit of quantity of electricity is :
(A) Watt hour
(B) Coulomb
(C) Ampere
(D) Volt

15. What is the value of medium resistance based on its ohmic values?
(A) Above 1 ohm upto 1000 ohms
(B) Above 1 ohm upto 100 K ohms
(C) Above 100 K ohms
(D) Below one ohm

16. Which tool is used to measure the size of the conductor?
(A) Bevel gauge
(B) Vernier caliper
(C) Standard wire gauge
(D) Depth gauge

17. In which classification of accessories, the switch will belong?
(A) Holding
(B) Safety
(C) General
(D) Controlling

18. What is the name of defect occurred in a cell, due to the presence of impurities on the zinc plate?
(A) Polarisation
(B) Sulphation
(C) Buckling
(D) Local action

19. The mass of a substance liberated from an electrolyte by one coulomb of electricity is termed as:
(A) electrochemical equivalent
(B) quantity of electricity
(C) electric charge
(D) electrochemical expression

20. What is the method of charging the battery at very low rate?
(A) Rectifier method
(B) Constant current method
(C) Trickle charge method
(D) Constant voltage method

## Questions for ITI Jobs

Refrigeration and Air Conditioner Carpenter
Automobile Engineering Lineman
Printing Technology Wireman
Tool and Die Maker Electrician
Boiler Operator Electrical
Pump Operator Mechanic
Architectural Draftsman Surveyor
Draughtsman Civil Instrument Mechanic
Masonry Electronics Mechanic
Welder Information Technology
Fitter Computer Hardware
Turner Steel Fabricator
Plumber Electroplater

21. The distance between two adjacent teeth of hacksaw blades are called :

22. Which substance is diamagnetic?
(A) Manganese
(B) Bismuth
(C) Nickel
(D) Cobalt

23. Tesla is the unit of :
(A) flux density
(B) reluctance
(C) flux
(D) magnetic field strength

24. Which type of DC generator is used for welding generator sets?
(A) Shunt generator
(B) Series generator
(C) Cumulative compound generator
(D) Differential compound generator

25. How many parallel paths in simplex wave winding of a D.C. generator having 8 poles?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2

26. As per BIS the series tied winding terminals must be marked as :
(A) B1B2
(B) E1E2
(C) D1D2
(D) F1F2

27. Which law/rule states that the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux linkage?
(A) Lenz’s law
(B) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(C) Fleming’s right hand rule

28. The table fan is not oscillating. The cause may be :
(A) the loose guards
(B) the defective speed control switch
(C) the spur gear with broken teeth
(D) the blades are out of balance

29. Which one has negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(A) Copper
(B) Nichrome
(C) Aluminium
(D) Mica

30. Which type of resistors are called as thermistors?
(A) PTC resistors
(B) Varistors
(C) LDR
(D) NTC resistors

31. Which one is NOT an application of electromagnet?
(A) Calling bell
(B) Protective relays
(C) Electric iron
(D) DOL starter

32. The magnetic term analogous to electrical term current is :
(A) Reluctance
(B) Flux
(C) flux density
(D) m.m.f.

33. The fire extinguisher not used for electric fire :
(A) Foam type
(B) Halon type
(C) Carbon tetrachloride
(D) Dry powder type

34. Six carbon-zinc cells in series have an output of :
(A) 6 V
(B) 9 V
(C) 12 V
(D) 7.5 V

35. A 100 Ah capacity battery should deliver a current of 10 A for approximately ___________ hours.
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) 25

36. A fluorescent tube may burn out if the choke coil is :
(A) open circuited
(B) grounded
(C) short circuited
(D) connected to the neutral line

37. The starting torque of a single phase induction motor is :
(A) Low
(B) High
(C) very low
(D) zero

38. While testing a capacitor with a multimeter, the needle shows zero position indicating the capacitor is :
(A) in good condition
(B) open circuited
(C) short circuited
(D) leaky

39. The direction of rotation of a capacitor-start motor can be reversed by :
(A) reversing the supply terminal connections
(B) reversing the connection of the auxiliary winding
(C) reversing the connection of both the main and auxiliary winding
(D) reversing the connection of either the main or the auxiliary winding

40. What is the synchronous speed of a six-pole induction motor running on power at 60 Hz supply?
(A) 1200 rpm
(B) 1000 rpm
(C) 7200 rpm
(D) 6000 rpm

41. The output of an alternator is in :
(A) HP
(B) KVA
(C) KW
(D) BHP

42. The other name of field current in an alternator is :
(B) armature current
(C) exciting current
(D) induced current

43. A 6-pole, 1200 rpm alternator will generate emf at the frequency of :
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 60 Hz
(C) 40 Hz
(D) 30 Hz

44. The voltage induced in the armature of an alternator will be :
(A) pulsating DC
(B) oscillating
(C) DC
(D) AC

45. In Scot connection, the teaser transformer has a tapping of a transformer.
(A) 86% of main
(B) 56% of main
(C) 50% of secondary
(D) 58% of secondary

46. The common method of cooling a power transformer is :
(A) air cooling
(B) air blast cooling
(C) oil cooling with air blast
(D) oil cooling with water forced

47. Three single phase transformers, each with 10 KVA rating connected in delta. If one of the transformer is damaged and taken out, the output of the system will be :
(A) 20 KVA
(B) 17.4 KVA
(C) 8.66 KVA
(D) 10 KVA

48. Transformer oil is used to :
(A) Cool
(B) Lubricate
(C) lubricate and cool
(D) insulate and cool

49. Which one of the following transformer is largest in size?
(A) 2 KVA, 600 Hz
(B) 2 KVA, 400 Hz
(C) 2 KVA, 200 Hz
(D) 2 KVA, 50 Hz

50. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at :

51. A transformer has maximum efficiency at an iron loss of 400 watts. Its copper loss will be :
(A) 200 W
(B) 300 W
(C) 400 W
(D) 800 W

52. When a 440/220 V transformer is connected to a 440 V DC supply :
(A) the output will be zero volt
(B) the output» will be 220 V
(C) the transformer may burn
(D) the output will be less than 220 V

53. In a transformer, the primary and secondary induced voltages are :
(A) 90° out of phase
(B) in phase
(C) 180° out of phase
(D) in any phase difference

54. ___________ is the most suitable material for the core of a transformer.
(A) Cold rolled grain oriented steel
(B) Hot rolled grain oriented steel
(C) Cast steel
(D) Carbon steel

55. The current drawn by a 240 DC motor of armature resistance 0.5 ohm and back emf of 220 V will be :
(A) 20A
(B) 30A
(C) 10A
(D) 40A

56. For wide and very sensitive speed control, the usual method is :
(A) Field control
(B) Armature control
(C) Voltage control
(D) Ward-Leonard control

57. The speed of a DC motor can be controlled by varying :
(A) the resistance of the armature circuit
(B) its flux per pole
(C) the voltage
(D) all of the above

58. A compound motor has :
(A) two fields
(B) three fields
(C) one field
(D) four fields

59. A 4-point starter is essential for a :
(A) compound motor with speed control above normal
(B) shunt motor with speed control below normal
(C) series motor with speed control above normal
(D) compound motor with speed control below normal

60. The power output of any electrical motor is taken from the :
(A) Shaft
(B) terminal box
(C) armature
(D) brushes

61. In DC motor three-point starter the hold ON coil is connected :
(A) in series to field coil
(B) in series to armature
(C) in parallel with field coil
(D) in parallel with armature

62. How many parallel paths are formed in DC motor four point starter?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

63. The inter poles are connected in :
(A) series with the armature
(B) parallel with the armature
(C) series with the field
(D) parallel with the field

64. The standard length of PVC wiring conduit available in the market is :
(A) 3 meters
(B) 2.5 meters
(C) 2 meters
(D) 3.5 meters

65. If five numbers of lamps to be installed in godown wiring, we require :
(A) one SPT and five two-way switches
(B) one SPT and six two-way switches
(C) two SPT and four two-way switches
(D) one SPT and four two-way switches

66. The minimum length of pipe electrode used for earthing should not be less than :
(A) 3 m
(B) 3.5 m
(C) 2.5 m
(D) 4 m

67. According to IE rules, the leakage current in an installation should not exceed one a the part of the maximum current in the installation.
(A) 5000
(B) 500
(C) 100
(D) 50000

68. An ON-LOAD tap changer is provided with :
(A) power transformer
(B) distribution transformer
(C) instrument transformer
(D) isolation transformer

69. The repeated closure of the circuit to start a motor from rest, producing small movements is called :
(A) starting
(B) jolting
(C) jogging
(D) flashing

70. The number of contactors used in a semi-automatic star-delta starter is :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

71. The edges of the slot liner should be folded on either end to prevent them from sliding in the slots is called :
(A) Cuffing
(B) Wedging
(C) Packing
(D) over hanging

72. The periphery of the armature divided by the number of poles of the machine is called :
(A) front pitch
(B) pole pitch
(C) back pitch
(D) commutator pitch

73. An electromagnetic device used to detect and locate grounded, shorted and open coils in an armature:
(A) external growler
(B) internal growler
(C) megger
(D) mulimeter

74. Pick up the odd one out :
(A) agitator type
(B) fuzzy logic type
(C) air power wash type
(D) saucepan type

75. The amount of emergent light downward is 60 to 90%. The type of lighting system is :
(A) direct
(B) semi indirect
(C) semi direct
(D) indirect

76. Coupling gap reading can be taken with the help of _________ while coupling and aligning MG sets.
(A) spirit level
(B) feeler gauge
(C) steel rule
(D) shims

77. As per Rule 51, a clear space of not less than 91.44 cm in width shall be provided :
(A) behind the switch board
(B) above the switch board
(C) below the switch board
(D) in front of the switch board