Medical Gastroenterology Questions and Answers

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Medical Gastroenterology Questions and Answers

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Questions and Answers on Medical Gastroenterology

1. In G-POEM Submocosal tunnel formation started at
(1) 2.5 cm proximal to pylorus
(2) 5 cm proximal to pylorus
(3) 7.5 cm proximal to pylorus
(4) 10 cm proximal to pylorus

2. In Narrow Band Imaging (NBI) which light has highest penetration ?
(1) Red
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Violet

3. In congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis which of following is seen ?
(1) Non-bilious vomiting
(2) Metabolic alkalosis
(3) Aciduria
(4) All of the above

4. Hampton’s line is a feature of
(1) Benign gastric ulcer
(2) Malignant gastric ulcer
(3) Benign polyp
(4) Malignant polyp

5. Duodenal ulcers are labelled refractory after treatment for a minimum of
(1) 4 weeks
(2) 6 weeks
(3) 8 weeks
(4) 14 weeks

6. Infectious cams of peptic ulcer includes all expect
(1) HSV 1
(2) HSV 6
(3) H pylori
(4) CMV

7. Which one is Potassium competitive acid pump antagonist ?
(1) Vilazodome
(2) Vonoprazan
(3) Pantaprazole
(4) Deloprazan

8. Which of the following cytochrome P450 is involved in the interaction of PPI and Clopidogrel ?
(1) CYP2B6
(2) CYP2C19
(3) CYP2D6
(4) CYP3A6

9. PH gated urea channel in H. pylori bacterium is called
(1) Urea I
(2) Urea J
(3) Urea k
(4) Urea L

10. Which the following is a Neurokimm (NKI) antagonist?
(1) Aprepitant
(2) Sumatriptan
(3) Kevetiracetam
(4) Cyproheptadine

11. Not true about intestinal type of gastric cancer
(1) Glandular structure
(2) Worse prognosis
(3) H. pylori isa risk factor
(4) Occur in endemic gastric cancer zone

12. Verioliform gastritis best refers to
(1) Lymphocytes gastritis
(2) Neutrophilic gastritis
(3) Eosinophilic gastritis
(4) Sarcoidosis gastritis

13. Genetic defect in MEN1 is
(1) Short arm of chromosome 11
(2) Long arm of chromosome 11
(3) Short arm of chromosome 12
(4) Long arm of chromosome 12

14. Curling’s ulcer
(1) Stress ulceration alter burn
(2) Stress ulceration after head trauma
(3) Stress ulceration alter sepsis
(4) Stress ulceration after mechanical ventilation

15. Not true for Submucosal Tunneling Endoscopic Resection (STER) is
(1) Used for esophageal and gastric submucosal tumors.
(2) Used for tumors (< 3 cm) arising from muscularis propia.
(3) Technically more easy in cardia of stomach then distal stomach.
(4) Mucosal integrity is maintained.

16. D2 Lymph nadal dissection in gastric cancer includes
(1) Lymphadenectomy from station No. 1 to 7.
(2) Lymphadenectomy from station No. 1 to 9.
(3) Lymphadenectomy from station No. 1 to 12.
(4) Nodes in hepatico duodenal ligament.

17. Incubation period of bacillus Cereus is
(1) 4-6 hours
(2) 8-12 hours
(3) 14-16 Hours
(4) 18-20 hours

18. What indicate lactose Malabsorbtion after injection of 25 gram of lactose ?
(1) Rise in breath hydrogen by 20 PPM at 180 minute
(2) Rise in breath hydrogen by 10 PPM at 180 minute
(3) Rise in breath hydrogen by 30 PPM at 180 minute
(4) Rise m breath hydrogen by 40 PPM at 180 minute

19. Maternal antibodies in newborn are maximally absorbed form
(1) Duodenum
(2) Jejunum
(3) Ileum
(4) Colon

20. Iron is actively absorbed mainly in
(1) Stomach
(2) Duodenum
(3) Jejunum
(4) Ileum

Quiz Questions and Answers
MCQs

21. Highest frequency of BER (Basal Electrical Rhythm) is seen in which of the following ?
(1) Stomach
(2) Duodenum
(3) Jejunum
(4) Ileum

22. Short bowel defined as
(1) Length of small bowel < 1000 cm
(2) Length of small bowel < 500 cm
(3) Length of small bowel < 200 cm
(4) Length of small bowel < 100 cm

23. Eggs with lateral spine are seen in
(1) S. Manson
(2) S. Japonicum
(3) S. Hematobium
(4) S. Intercalatus

24. ALL Cain Cause Sceretory diarrhoea except
(1) Zollinger Ellisson syndrome
(2) Carcinoid syndrome
(3) Pancreatic insufficiency
(4) Vipomas

25. Which isotope is used in schilling test?
(1) Co58 labelled cobalamine
(2) Co68 labelled cobalamine
(3) Co78 labelled cobalamine
(4) Co88 labelled cobalamine

26. Which of the following statement about tropheryma whipplei is false ?
(1) Gram positive
(2) Acino bactertim
(3) Low virulence and low infectivity
(4) PAS positive macrophages in small intestine

27. Adherence to colonic Mucin by E. Histolytica trophozoite is mediated by
(1) Galactose — acetylgalactosamine —Specific lectin.
(2) Galactose — acetylgalactosaminc —Specific pectin
(3) Galactose — acetylgalactosamine —Specific trypsin
(4) Galactose — acetylgalactosamine —Specific capsin

28. Which of Ube following hormone has role in the treatment of short bowel syndrome ?
(1) GLP-2
(2) VIP
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) TSH

29. Soap bubble appearance on abdominal radiograph is associated with
(1) Achlasia cardia
(2) Melonium ileus
(3) Duodenal atresia
(4) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

30. Which of the following statement is False for refractory celiac disease type?
(1) Abnormal intraepithelial lymphocyte
(2) Clonal intraepithelial lymphocyte without CD3
(3) Clonal intraepithelial lymphocyte with CD8
(4) Higher risk of ulcerative jejunoileitis.

31. Diagnostic entries for PRIMARY GI LYMPHOMA are all except
(1) Absence of palpable peripheral lymphadenopathy
(2) No mediastinal adenopathy on chest imaging
(3) Abnormal peripheral smear
(4) At laparatomy only involvement of GI tract or only the regional lymph node

32. Which of the following statement is False for LUBIPROSTATE ?
(1) Bicyclic fatty acid.
(2) Chloride channel activator
(3) Oral administration
(4) Guanylate cyclase – agonist.

33. Relapse rate of Chron’s disease after 5 year of remission is
(1) 25-30%
(2) 40-50%
(3) 70-80%
(4) 85-95%

34. Germline mutation in one of the DNA mismatch repair (MMR) gene can lead which of the following familial cancer syndrome:
(1) Peutz-jeghers syndrome
(2) Lynch syndrome
(3) Familial adenomatous polyposis
(4) Gardner’s syndrome

35. Adalimumab is a
(1) IgG1 Chimeric monochonal Ab against TNF
(2) IgG, recombinant human monoclonal Ab against TNF
(3) IgG, Chimeric monoclonal Ab against TNF
(4) P75 TNF receptor fusion protein

36. Gene associated with innate immunity and autophagy are all except
(1) NOD2
(2) ATGI6 LI
(3) IRGP
(4) NCF2

37. NOD2 gene is also known as
(1) CARD 11
(2) CARD 13
(3) CARD 15
(4) CARD 18

38. What percentage of ulcerative colitis patients have diffuse involvement ?
(1) 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 30%
(4) 40%

39. Inherited polyposis syndrome are all except
(1) Gardner syndrome
(2) Turcot’s syndrome
(3) Peutz-jeghers syndrome
(4) Cronkhite-Canada syndrome

40. Most common benign colorectal polyps are
(1) Tubular adenoma
(2) Tubulovillous
(3) Villous
(4) None of the above

41. NICE Classification for colon polyps is based on all of the following except :
(1) Color
(2) Vessel
(3) Surface pattern
(4) Size

42. Short chain fatty acids produced by bacteria are maximally absorbed in
(1) Duodenum
(2) Jejunum
(3) Ileum
(4) Colon

43. Collagenous sprue defined as
(1) Subepithitial collagen band thickness > 6 micromm
(2) Subepithilial collagen band thickness > 8 micromm
(3) Subepithilial collagen band thickness > 10 micromm
(4) Subepithilial collagen band thickness > 16 micromm

44. Gold standard for confirmation of acute mesenteric artery occlusion is
(1) Mesenteric angiography
(2) Duplex ultrasound
(3) MRI
(4) CECT abdomen

45. Following probiotics have level 1 evidence in prevention of postoperative sepsis are except –
(1) L. Acidophilus
(2) L. Planatarum
(3) Bifidobacerium longum 88
(4) L. Rhamnosus GG

46. Collipase acts with
(1) Lipoprotein lipase
(2) Pancreatic lipase
(3) Gastric lipase
(4) Salivary lipase

47. What is the risk of pancreatic cancer in patient of chronic pancreatitis after 20 years?
(1) 4-5%
(2) 8-10%
(3) 2-3%
(4) 10-15%

48. Highest score of necrosis in CT severity index is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 8

49. Which of the following, abnormality is not included in the EUS criteria for chronic pancreatitis ?
(1) Main duct irregular
(2) Visible side branches
(3) Main duct dilation
(4) Main duct not visible

50. In pancreatic exocrine insufficiency definite level of Fecal elastase activity is
(1) <100 microgram per gram of stool
(2) <200 microgram per gram of stool
(3) <300 microgram per gram of stool
(4) <400 microgram per gram of stool