Anatomy Quiz
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Quiz on Anatomy
1. Structure derived from Mullerian duct in male
(1) vas deferens
(2) seminal vesicles
(3) ejaculatory duct
(4) appendix testis
2. Hirschsprung disease associated with all of the following, except :
(1) Absence of sympathetic ganglia in bowel wall
(2) Absence of parasympathetic ganglia in bowel wall
(3) Mutation of RET gene
(4) In most cases rectum is involved
3. Structures contributing to formation of the face, following statement is correct :
(1) Maxillary prominence develops into philtrum of upper lip
(2) Mandibular prominence develop into cheeks
(3) Medial nasal prominence form the alae of the nose
(4) Frontonasal prominence develops into forehead
4. Descent of the testies is associated with all, except :
(1) Gubernaculum
(2) Testosterone
(3) Androgen
(4) Intra abdominal pressure
5. Tongue muscle derives from
(1) Cervical somite
(2) Mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
(3) Occipital somite
(4) Head and neck mesenchyme
6. Which of the following nuclei belongs to the general visceral efferent column?
(1) Facial nerve nucleus
(2) Dorsal nerve nucleus
(3) Trigeminal nerve nucleus
(4) Nucleus ambigenous
7. Polyhydramnios is associated with all, except :
(1) Bilateral renal agenesis
(2) Tracheo-esophageal fistula
(3) Anencephaly
(4) Bowel atresia
8. Meckel’s diverticulum all are true about it, except :
(1) Form by persistence of vitelline duct
(2) Present at the ileocecal valve
(3) Occurs in 2 percentage of cases
(4) Normally remain asymptometric
9. In hyaline cartilage type of collagen present is
(1) Type I
(2) Type II
(3) Type III
(4) Type IV
10. Which of the following is used to make fat visible?
(1) Eosin
(2) Hematoxylin
(3) Sudan
(4) Toluidine blue
11. A cell-cell junction, seals cells together in an epithelium, causing zero leakage of molecules, called as
(1) Tight junction only
(2) Occluding junction only
(3) Adhering junction only
(4) Tight and occluding junction
12. What type of epithelium lines the vas deferens?
(1) Pseudostratified columnar
(2) Stratified squamous
(3) Simple squamous
(4) Simple cuboidal
13. A sub-capsular sinus is typically present in this structure –
(1) Thymus
(2) Synovial joint
(3) Spleen
(4) Lymph node
14. Which layer contains Auerbach’s plexus?
(1) Mucosa
(2) Sub-mucosa
(3) Muscularis externa
(4) Serosa
15. Pericytes are found close to the
(1) Hair follicle
(2) Lymph vessels
(3) Capillaries and venules
(4) Cartilage
16. Which cell secrete pepsinogen?
(1) Parietal cell
(2) Oxyntic cell
(3) Chief cell
(4) Mucous neck cell
17. Epithelium of the collecting ducts of the kidneys is
(1) Transitional
(2) Simple cuboidal or columnar
(3) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
(4) Simple squamous
18. The cells of the outermost layer of cerebral cortex are
(1) Horizontal
(2) Purkinje
(3) Martinoti
(4) Granule
19. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to lesion in
(1) Trigeminal ganglion
(2) Ciliary ganglion
(3) Greater petrosal nerve
(4) Cervical ganglion
20. Injury of which of these nerve cause vocal cord paralysis?
(1) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(2) Eternal laryngeal nerve
(3) Internal laryngeal nerve
(4) Superior laryngeal nerve
Practice Set | MCQs |
Quiz | Questions and Answers |
Important Questions | Viva Questions |
21. In agenesis of corpus callosum occurs
(1) Hemiparesis
(2) Hemi anaesthesia
(3) Astereognosis
(4) No neurological sign.
22. Caudal herniation of the cerebellar tonsil and medulla through the foramen magnum is called
(1) Dandy — Walker syndrome
(2) Down syndrome
(3) Amold— Chatari syndrome
(4) Myeloschisis
23. Which of the following is a characteristic of Friedreich’s ataxia?
(1) Disease appears in puberty
(2) Bilateral degeneration of the posterior spino-cerebellar tract
(3) Degeneration of anterior spino-cerebellar tract
(4) Dorsolateral tract of Lissaller involved
24. A 50-years-old patient with idiopathic trigeminal neuralgia reports sharp, stabbing pain in the upper lip and nose. Which branch of trigeminal nerve is affected?
(1) Ophthalmic
(2) Maxillary
(3) Mandibullar
(4) Lacrimal
25. Which of the following is correct?
(1) Hirschsprung disease is peptic ulcer disease.
(2) Reynaud disease is congenital aganglionic mega colone.
(3) Horner’s syndrome associated with anisocoria and hemianhidrosis.
(4) Riley-Day syndrome characterised by painful vasospasm affecting the digits.
26. The cervical rib exerts pressure on
(1) The lower trunk of the brachial plexus
(2) Upper trunk of brachial plexus
(3) Axillary artery
(4) Middle trunk of brachial plexus
27. The usual location of pericardial puncture for pericardiocentesis is
(1) At left costoxiphoid angle
(2) Through the transverse sinus
(3) Near the apex of the heart
(4) Through the jugular notch
28. Winging of scapula is caused by
(1) Paralysis of Rhomboid major muscle
(2) Injury to long thoracic nerve
(3) Paralysis of latissimus dorsi muscle
(4) Injury to rotator cuff
29. Injury to which spinal segments would result in loss of biceps tendon reflex?
(1) C5, C6
(2) C6, C7, C8
(3) C7, C8
(4) C8,T1
30. In an adult, avascular necrosis of the head of femur is a likely consequence of
(1) Intertrochanteric fracture
(2) Obstruction of obturator artery
(3) Posterior dislocation of the head of femur resulting in tearing of ligamentum teres
(4) Sub-capital fracture of femur
31. Two elderly patients were diagnosed to be suffering from pleurisy. One was found to have left Jateral thoracic pain, whereas the other complained of pain on the left neck and left shoulder. The difference in this presentation can be explained by differing innervation of pleura by
(1) Cervical splanchnic and thoracic splanchnic
(2) Intercostal and phrenic
(3) Parasympathetic and sympathetic
(4) Phrenic and Vagus
32. In early appendicitis, the dermatome to which the pain is referred to is
(1) T10
(2) T11
(3) L3
(4) L4
33. A postero-lateral episiotomy cuts through
(1) Bulbospongiosus
(2) Ischiocavernosus
(3) Perineal body
(4) Pubovaginalis
34. Following statement is true about diaphragm of thoraco-abdominal cavity, except :
(1) Diaphragm is a muscle of inspiration
(2) Its contraction raises the intra abdominal pressure
(3) Its contraction decreases venous return
(4) Its contraction decrease intra thoracic pressure
35. All of the following is true about CSF, except :
(1) CSF supports and cushions the brain and spinal cord against concussive injury.
(2) It removes metabolic waste products.
(3) It helps in diagnosis of meningitis.
(4) Its protein content is very high a compared to plasma protein.
36. Viewed from the back, the medial edge of the pleura may be surface marked along a line joining the transverse process of the following vertebrae :
(1) C7-T8
(2) T1-T10
(3) T2 -T12
(4) T4-L2
37. Anterior border of parotid gland is represented by
(1) Line descending from mandibular condyle to middle of masseter, 2 cm below and behind angle of mandible.
(2) Line from lower part of masseter io angle of mandible.
(3) Line from lower border of tragus to 2 cm below the angle of mandible.
(4) None
38. Which one out of the following is felt against styloid process of radius?
(1) Radial pulse
(2) Brachial pulse
(3) Ulnar pulse
(4) Posterior Interosseous pulse
39. What does a line drawn 4 cm long just below the level of 4th right costal cartilage, passing down and slightly to right depicts?
(1) Tricuspid valve
(2) Aortic valve
(3) Pulmonary orifice
(4) Mitral orifice
40. Lumber triangle lies between
(1) Lowermost outer border of latissimus dorsi, posterior free border of external oblique and iliac crest
(2) Lowermost outer border of Latissimus dorsi, inter oblique muscle and iliac crest
(3) Upper border of latissimus dorsi, post free border of external oblique and iliac crest
(4) Upper border of latissimus dorsi, internal oblique and iliac crest
41. Which of the following provide images similar to transverse sections of the body parts?
(1) Skiagram
(2) CT Scan
(3) Sonography
(4) All of these
42. For cross-sectional Study of body following is true, except :
(1) CT scan can be used in pregnant lady
(2) MRI can be used in patient with cardiac pacemakers
(3) For CT scan X-rays required
(4) MRI is cheaper than the CT scan
43. The exception to Mendel’s law of 12 segregation is
(1) Co-dominance
(2) Genetic linkage
(3) Intermediate inheritance
(4) Non-disjunction
44. The number of functional gametes produced from a single primary oocyte is
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Sixteen
45. The unusual long phase in meiosis in female is
(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Telophase II