Zoology Viva Question

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Zoology Viva Question
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Viva Question Papers of Zoology

1. The microscope in which the object is illuminated but the field surrounding it appears black is :
1) fluoroscence microscope
2) phase­contrast microscope
3) compound microscope
4) confocal microscope

2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding confocal microscope?
1) scans one plane of a specimen at a time
2) obtains three dimensional images of cells
3) scanning is done by using lasers
4) provides images of biological molecules in atomic details

3. Most commonly used probe for protein detection is
1) Lecithin
2) Antibody
3) Antigens
4) interferons

4. Which of the following statements are correct about FISH technique ? A. Does not require a linkage map. B. Exploits nucleic acid hybridization. C. can determine the pattern of expression of a cloned gene. D. Can determine the chromosomal location of a cloned gene.
1) A , B , C
2) A , B , D
3) B , C , D
4) A , C , D

5. An IgG antibody has :
1) one fab region and one Fc region
2) two fab regions and two Fc region
3) two fab regions and one Fc region
4) many fab regions and many Fc regions

6. Regarding electrophoresis SDS ­ PAGE which statement is INCORRECT ?
1) the technique is used in enzyme purification
2) the technique is used to check the lipid profile
3) the smaller molecules migrate more rapidly through the gel
4) the molecules have the same charge to mass ratio

7. From the following which one is NOT used as a detector in Gas Liquid chromatography (GLC) ?
1) Flame ionization detector (FID)
2) Nitrogen phosphorus detector (NPD)
3) Thermal conductivity detector (TCD)
4) Electron capture detector (ECD)

8. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding Auto radiography ?
1) Auto radiography of gels allows the identification of specific proteins and nuclei
2) It is the exposure of X­ray film to a radio­active sample
3) It is used in conjunction with microscopy
4) It is not possible to localize radio active markers to particular cells in tissue sections

9. All of the following statements regarding lysosome are correct except :
1) lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes
2) for the activity of hydrolases the lysosomes maintain a pH of 7.2 in its interior
3) the lysosome membrane contains transmembrane proteins
4) lysosomes exhibit polymorphism

10. The transport between Golgi cisternae ( intra­golgi transport) involves the following steps : I. Donar cisternae gives rise to a coated bud II. The bud is uncoated and attaches to acceptor cisternae III. A complex of three proteins (fusion machine) helps in fusion of bud with acceptor cisternae releases the contents IV. The bud is detached and is targated to acceptor cisternae
1) I , IV , II , III
2) III , II , I , IV
3) I , II , IV , III
4) I , III , IV , II

11. In order to enter a cell cycle, a cell must be stimulated from outside. What type of molecule provides this stimulation ?
1) Cyclins
2) Tyrosine Kinases
3) Cyclin ­ dependent Kinases
4) Cytokines and growth factors

12. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing :
1) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
2) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
3) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
4) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids

13. Which of the following statemet regarding Pribnow box is FALSE ?
1) The sequence of nucleotides is 5’­TATAAT­3′
2) It is centered at 10 bp position
3) It facilitates the localized unwinding of DNA
4) It facilitates the elongation of RNA chain

14. Which of the following is NOT a property of DNA polymerase I in Prokaryotes ?
1) 5’ -> 3’ polymerase activity
2) 5’ -> 3’ exonulease activity
3) 5’ -> 3’ endonuclease activity
4) 5’ -> 3’ exonulease activity

15. DNA Topoisomerases in recombination are ­
1) Responsible for removing super coils in the helix
2) Responsible for the localised strand replication
3) Joins the initiation complex and contributes to the formation of two bidirectional replication fork
4) unwind the double helix using ATP

16. During DNA replication , the enzyme which polymerises the Okazaki fragments is :
1) RNA polymerase I
2) DNA polymerase I
3) DNA polymerase II
4) DNA polymerase III

17. The semi­conservative replication of DNA is proved by using which isotope?
1) N14 and N15
2) N14 and P31
3) P31 and C14
4) N14 and C14

18. The function of general transcription factor (TFIIA), testis specific transcription factor is :­
1) stabalize TBP and TAF binding
2) recognizes TATA box
3) contains ATP­dependent helicase
4) stimulates elongation

19. The DNA chain acting as template for RNA synthesis has the following order of bases AGCTTCGA. What will be the order of bases in mRNA ?

20. DNA molecule carries information in :
1) Total number of nucleotides
2) Amino­acid sequence
3) The order of bases in the molecule
4) Sugar and phosphate that form its backbone

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21. Ef ­ Ts is an example of :
1) Termination factor
2) Elongation factor
3) Enzyme that catalyses peptide bond formation
4) Antibiotic that resembles 3’end of tRNA

22. The enhancer elements are segments of DNA that ­ I. function in any orientation II. Function in tissue specific manner III. Function as promoters IV. Activate transcription of a gene irrespective of their position in the DNA chain Choose the correct combination from the following :
1) I , II , III
2) I , II , IV
3) II , III , IV
4) I , III , IV

23. Lac Operon and trp Operon are examples of :
1) Negative control
2) Positive control
3) Both positive and negative control
4) Neither positive nor negative control

24. The repressor protein in a eukaryote may block gene expression by binding to a DNA site called :
1) Inducer
2) Enhancer
3) Silencer
4) Regulator

25. RNAi stands for which of the following :
1) RNA interference
2) RNA insertion
3) RNA inducer
4) RNA intron

26. The example of degeneracy of the genetic code is :
1) the given one amino acid has more than one codon
2) the genetic code is not degenerate
3) the first two bases specify the amino acids
4) each codon specifies more than one amino acid

27. The nucleotide sequences on DNA that actually have information encoding a sequence of amino­acid are :
1) Introns
2) Exons
3) introns and exons both
4) none of these

28. To deal with the DNA damage a number of repair enzyymes are present which are known to catalyse the DNA repair . Which of the following is NOT an enzyme of Direct Repair System.
1) DNA photolyase
2) Apurinic endonuclease
3) Spore photoproduct lyase
4) O6 – methyl guanine DNA methyl transferase

29. All of the following statements are correct about overlapping Gene Groups (OGGs) except :
1) OGGs arise when exon of one gene are contained within the introns of another
2) OGGs are defective copies of functional genes
3) In OGGs the two overlapping genes are encoded on opposite DNA strands
4) OGGs are often associated with specific disease phenotypes

30. Which of the following is most suitable defiition of an operator in context of prokaryote gene :
1) A DNA binding protein that regulates gene expression
2) A cluster of genes which are regulated by a single promoter
3) A non­coding regulatory DNA sequence bound by RNA polymerase
4) A non­coding regulatory DNA sequence bound by a repressor protein

31. The cell surface receptors are classified in three groups : I. G protein linked receptors II. Enzyme linked receptors III. Ion­channel linked receptors IV. Lipase linked receptors select the correct answer using the codes given below :
1) I , II , IV
2) II , III , IV
3) I , II , III
4) I , III , IV

32. Which statements is FALSE regarding paracrine signals ?
1) These are extracellular signals
2) These show local effects
3) These are short lived
4) These are usually carried through blood stream

33. The compounds that acts as “second messangers” during signaling process are : I. calcium ions II. cAMP III. TAG (Triacylglycerol) IV. Inositol ­ 3,4,5, triphosphate select the correct answer using the codes given below:­
1) I , II , III
2) II , III , IV
3) I , III , IV
4) I , II , IV

34. Which of the following cell function is a communicating function ?
1) Desmosomes
2) Hemidesmosomes
3) Gap Junction
4) Adherens Junction

35. The cyclic AMP dependent protein kinases (PKA) in most of the cases :
1) add phosphate groups to proteins
2) hydrolyse protein
3) polymerises amino acids
4) stimulates adenylyl cyclase

36. When a signal molecule arrives at a G protein linked receptor , the G protein :
1) Becomes deactivated
2) Binds to signal molecule
3) Binds with Ca++
4) Becomes activated

37. The three active genes belonging to c­ras family in man which give to oncogenes are :
1) N , R and K
2) N , H and K
3) H , R and K
4) N , H and R

38. Which type of cancer in humans is directly caused by viral infection ?
1) Acute T ­ cell leukemia
2) Wilm’s tumour
3) Burkitts lymphoma
4) Rous sarcoma

39. p53 is called a “guardian of the genome” because :
1) It kills tumour cells
2) It protects genome from DNA damaging chemicals
3) It prevents genome mutation
4) It inhibits cell stress

40. The cellular organelle involved in the initation of the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is :
1) Mitochondria
2) Lysosome
3) Endoplasmic Reticulum
4) Ribosome

41. Molecules which are involved in the anchoring of cells to an extracellular matrix are
1) Angiostatin
2) Integrins
3) Cyclins
4) Interleukins

42. The quorum, sensing signal molecule in gram­negative bacteria is :
1) Propyl cortisone
2) Ethyl methyl ketone
3) Isopropyl aldosterone
4) Acyl homoserine lactone

43. An individual with the genotype AaBaCc will produce :
1) Eight different types of gametes
2) All gametes of the same type
3) Four types of gametes
4) Four gametes of one types and remaining gamete of a second type

44. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in :
1) Both , homozygous and heterozygous state
2) Second generation
3) Heterozygous combination
4) Homozygous combination

45. The gene linkage minimizes the chance of which of the following ?
1) Assortment
2) Cross­over
3) Recombination
4) Segregation

46. In a cross involving mutant genes b and e is done, 3% recombinants are observed . When a cross involving mutant genes t and e is done 22% recombinates are observed . When a cross involving mutant genes b & t is done 10% recombinations are observed . What is the correct order of genes on the chromosomes ?
1) t , e , b
2) t , b , e
3) b , t , e
4) b , e , t

47. Consider the following statements and give the correct answer using the codes given below : I. Phenotype is the expression of a trait II. Genotype can be ascertained from the ancestory III. Homozygous individuals produce two kinds of gametes IV. Genetically pure, true breeding organisms resulting from inbreeding are called pure line :
1) I , II , III
2) I , II , IV
3) II , III , IV
4) I , III , IV

48. The probability that a male inherited his Y chromosome from his maternal grand father is
1) 100%
2) 50%
3) 25%
4) 0%

49. The most common cause of base substitution resulting into mutation is :
1) Base inversion
2) Base deletion
3) Tautomeric shifts
4) Error in mitotic division

50. The interchange of parts between non­homologous chromosomes is called :
1) Inversion
2) Deletion
3) Duplication
4) Translocation