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1. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act,1872 provides that the credit of a witness may be impeached in by the adverse party?
(a) Section 154
(b) Section 155
(c) Section 156
(d) None of these

2. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for a new trial?
(a) Section 165
(b) Section 166
(c) Section 167
(d) None of these

3. The case Mirza Akbar vs Emperor is related with
(a) Dying Declaration
(b) Confession
(c) Relevancy of Conspiracy
(d) None of these

4. When did Information Technology Act 2000 come into force?
(a) 17th October, 2000
(b) 18th October, 2000
(c) 17th October, 2001
(d) 19th October, 2001

5. Provision regarding digital Signature has been mentioned under ____________of the Information Technology Act 2000.
(a) Chapter I
(b) Chapter II
(c) Chapter III
(d) Chapter IV

6. Which section of Information Technology Act 2000 deals with the legal recognition of the digital signature?
(a) Section 2
(b) Section 5
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 4

7. Who shall be the repository of all digital signature?
(a) The Central Government
(b) The State Government
(c) The Controller
(d) None of these

8. Who can suspend the license under the Information Technology Act 2000?
(a) Controller
(b) Certifying Authority
(c) ITO
(d) None of these

9. Which among the following needs to be followed by Certifying Authority?
(a) Every Certifying Authority shall, make use of hardware, software and procedures that are secure from intrusion and misuse
(b) Every Certifying Authority shall, provide a reasonable level of reliability in its services which are reasonably suited to the performance of intended functions
(c) Every Certifying Authority shall, adhere to security procedures to ensure that the secrecy and privacy of the digital signatures are assured
(d) All of these

10. Who can suspend the digital signature certificate?
(a) Controller
(b) Ceritifying Authority
(c) ITO
(d) None of these

11. Under the Information Technology Act 2000, a Cyber Appellate Tribunal shall consist of-
(a) one person
(b) two persons
(c) three persons
(d) four persons

12. The Presiding Officer of a Cyber Appellate Tribunal shall hold office
(a) for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier
(b) for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier
(c) for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier
(d) none of these

13. Whoever knowingly or intentionally conceals, destroys or alters any computer source code used for a computer, when the computer source code is required to be kept or maintained by law for the time being in force,
(a) shall be punishable with imprisonment up to two years, or with fine which may extend up to two lakh rupees, or with both
(b) shall be punishable with imprisonment up to three years, or with fine which may extend up to two lakh rupees, or with both
(c) shall be punishable with imprisonment up to five years, or with fine which may extend up to two lakh rupees, or with both
(d) none of these

14. Removal of difficulties clause has been mentioned under________of the Information Technology Act 2000
(a) Section 85
(b) Section 86
(c) Section 87
(d) None of these

15. Which section of Information Technology Act 2000 deals with Cyber terrorism?
(a) Section 66C
(b) Section 66B
(c) Section 66F
(d) Section 66A

16. Major amendments to Information Technology Act 2000 was introduced in the form of Information Technology (amendment) Act 2008, which came into effect on
(a) 2009 October 27
(b) 2008 October 27
(c) 2008 June 10
(d) 2009 July 30

17. Which are the sections of Information Technology Act 2000 applicable for Cyber pornography?
(a) 66, 66A, 66B
(b) 67, 67A, 67B
(c) 67, 67C, 67D
(d) None of these

18. If a corporate house, possessing personal information, neglects to implement and maintain reasonable security practices and thus causes wrongful loss or wrongful gain to any person, such corporate body is liable to pay compensation under-
(a) Sec. 42
(b) Sec. 43
(c) Sec. 43A
(d) Sec. 44

19. Which of the following acts as regulator as well as first-poll-of-call for cyber security incidents?
(a) Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(b) CERT-IN
(c) Intermediary
(d) Subscriber

20. __________ involves following a person’s movements across the Internet by posting messages (sometimes threatening) on bulletin boards frequented by the victim, entering chat-rooms frequented by the victim, constantly bombarding the victim with emails etc.
(a) Cyber Stalking
(b) IP Crimes
(c) DNS attack
(d) None of these

21. Which of the following safety measures are necessary for using credit card?
(a) Make online transactions only on secure, well established and reputed websites. Always ensure that the address of the website where transactions to be done, starts with ‘https://’.
(b) Change your card PIN (Personal Identification Number) periodically.
(c) Avoid using cyber cafes for Internet Banking purpose
(d) All of these

22. What is the penalty for publishing images of a person’s private parts without consent, as per Information Technology Act 2000?
(a) Life imprisonment
(b) 5 years imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both
(c) 3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both
(d) None of these

23. The case Shreya Singhal vs Union of India related with
(a) Unconstitutionality of section 66A
(b) Unconstitutionality of section 66B
(c) Cyber pornography
(d) None of these

24. The Root Certifying Authority (RCAI) of India is established by the Controller Certifying Authorities under
(a) Section 18(a) of the Information Technology Act
(b) Section 18(b) of the Information Technology Act
(c) Section 18(c) of the Information Technology Act
(d) Section 18(d) of the Information Technology Act

25. The failure/refusal to decrypt data has been made punishable under
(a) Section 66 of the Information Technology Act
(b) Section 66 D of the Information Technology Act
(c) Section 66E of the Information Technology Act
(d) Section 69 of the Information Technology Act

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26. Information Technology Act 2000 got the assent of President on
(a) 8th June, 2000
(b) 9th June, 2000
(c) 10th June, 2000
(d) None of these

27. Information Technology Act shall not apply to
(a) a negotiable instrument as defined in section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
(b) a power-of-attorney as defined in section 1A of the Powers-of-Attorney Act, 1882
(c) a trust as defined in section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
(d) all of these

28. An individual, being a citizen of India and having a capital of________crores of rupees or more in his business or profession can apply for grant of a license to issue Digital Signature Certificates.
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15

29. Where the license of the Certifying Authority is suspended or revoked the Controller shall publish notice of such suspension or revocation, as the case may be, in the:
(a) Newspaper
(b) Official gazette
(c) Data-base maintained by him
(d) None of these

30. Chapter IX of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with
(a) Attribution, acknowledgement and dispatch of electronic records
(b) Duties of subscribers
(c) Penalties, compensation and adjudication
(d) Electronic Signature Certificates

31. The selection of chairperson and members of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal shall be made by the Central Government in consultation with the
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Minister, Information Technology
(d) None of these

32. Syed Asifuddin v State of Andhra Pradesh 2005 CriLJ 4314 is case connected with section ________ of The Information Technology Act, 2000:
(a) 65
(b) 67
(c) 70
(d) 69

33. Penalty and Compensation for damage to computer, computer system, etc is provided under section ________ The Information Technology Act, 2000
(a) 43
(b) 44
(c) 45
(d) 46

34. The Limitation Act 1963 came into force on:
(a) 1st January, 1964
(b) 5th October, 1963
(c) 1st January, 1965
(d) 1st October, 1963

35. Which of the following maxims represent the law of limitation?
(a) Interest republicae ut sit finis litium
(b) Vigilantibus non dormientibus jura sub vinient
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

36. The period of limitation for filing of suit on the basis of a promissory note from the date of it’s execution is
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years

37. When the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted:
(a) on the day when the court reopens
(b) on the last preceding day before the court was closed
(c) none of these
(d) all of these

38. Which Report of the Law Commission of India deals with Limitation Act,1983?
(a) Eighty-Eighth Law Commission Report
(b) Eighty–Ninth-Law Commission Report.
(c) Ninetieth Law Commission Report
(d) None of these

39. Sections 3 to 11 of the Limitation Act,1963 deals with
(a) the limitation of suit and appeals
(b) suit and applications
(c) suits, appeals and applications
(d) suit only

40. Which among the following cases is related with condonation of delay under section 5 of the Limitation Act,1963?
(a) Ram Pal vs Rewa Coal Field Ltd.
(b) Rajendra Singh vs Santa Singh
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

41. Which section of the Limitation Act provides for the limitation period in case of suit against trustee and their representative?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 12
(d) Section 13

42. Which among the following is not an essential requisite of a valid acknowledgement?
(a) It must be made before the expiration of limitation period
(b) It need not be in writing
(c) It must be signed by the person making the acknowledgement or by his authorized agent
(d) It must be made by the party against whom any property or right is claimed

43. What is the limitation period for filing suit by a surety against co-surety when the surety pays anything in excess of his own share?
(a) Two years
(b) Three years
(c) Five years
(d) Twelve years

44. The Limitation Act is not applicable in
(a) Civil Matters
(b) Revenue Matters
(c) Inheritance Matters
(d) None of these

45. Which is true of acknowledgement?
(a) Extends the period of limitation
(b) Confers an independent right on person
(c) Confers a right on the person
(d) All of these

46. Section 19 of the Limitation applies
(a) suit for debts
(b) suit for legacies
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

47. The word ‘prescribed period’ as used in section 19 of the Limitation Act refers
(a) the period prescribed for re-payment
(b) the period prescribed for limitation by the Act
(c) the period prescribed for limitation in any other Act
(d) None of these is correct

48. The time barred debt can be claimed:
(a) as set off
(b) as counter claim
(c) as a fresh suit
(d) none of these

49. What is the period of limitation for setting aside an ex-parte decree?
(a) 10 days
(b) 20days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days

50. In which of the following cases the Calcutta High Court held that “Though Limitation of 1 year as provided in Contempt of Courts Act, in fit case provisions of section 5 and 17 of Limitation Act can be applied by virtue of section 29(2) of Limitation Act”?
(a) Subrata Kundu v. Kshiti Goswami, AIR 2010 Cal 44
(b) Nirpendra Ch. Dey v. Collector, AIR 2010 Cal 49
(c) Anma Ghosh v. Vimla, AIR 2010 Cal 62.
(d) Vikashini Ghosh v. A.K. Roy, AIR 2010 Cal