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Law Related Important Questions

1. Judges of the High Court are appointed by the
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India

2. The power of President of India to issue the ordinance is
(a) executive power
(b) legislative power
(c) constituent power
(d) quasi-judicial power

3. Supreme Court of India is different from the Supreme Court of USA
(a) in its role as guardian of the Constitution
(b) in its advisory role
(c) in its role as supreme authority in judicial field in the country
(d) none of these

4. Which among the following is not the Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) The State shall endeavor to secure for citizen uniform civil code
(b) The State shall promote with special care of the educational and economic interests of the weaker section
(c) The State shall endeavor to promote adult education to eliminate literacy
(d) The State shall procure sportsmanship

5. Who made the statement “The preamble of the constitution is the horoscope of Indian Republic”?
(a) K. M. Munshi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) B.R.Ambedkar
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

6. How many sections are there in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) 157 Sections
(b) 156 Sections
(c) 157 Sections
(d) 158 Sections

7. “Decree” has been defined under _________ of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(a) 2(a)
(b) 2(b)
(c) 2(1)
(d) 2(2)

8. Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides about
(a) Civil Suit
(b) Res sub judice
(c) Res judcata
(d) None of these

9. Which suit shall be considered as civil suit, has been mentioned under ______ of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(a) Section 8
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 14

10. Who among the following is exempted from arrest during execution of money decree under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(a) Farmer
(b) Women
(c) Dumb
(d) None of these

11. The ground upon which second appeal lies are mentioned under ________ of the Code of Civil Procedure
(a) Section 99
(b) Section 100
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

12. Section 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides about
(a) Revision
(b) Review
(c) Second appeal
(d) None of these

13. Which Court has power of “revision”?
(a) Session Court
(b) High Court
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

14. Section 152, of the Code of Civil Procedure, deals with amendment of
(a) Clerical and arithmetical errors in judgment, decree or order
(b) Clerical or arithmetical errors in plaint
(c) Clerical or arithmetical errors in written statement
(d) None of these

15. A Suit where joinder of party is necessary is bad for a non-joinder of a necessary party, has been provided
(a) Under Order 1, Rule 10 of Code of Civil Procedure
(b) Under Order 1, Rule 9 of Code of Civil Procedure
(c) Under Order 1, Rule 10A of Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Under Order 1, Rule 11 of Code of Civil Procedure

16. What is the name of suit brought by a person from whom two persons claim a debt adversely to one another and who claims no interest to that and ready to deliver it to rightful claimant?
(a) Interpleader suit
(b) Civil suit
(c) Representative suit
(d) None of these

17. Which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure empowers the Court to issue Commission?
(a) Section 73
(b) Section 74
(c) Section 75
(d) Section 76

18. For how many days caveat will be valid?
(a) Sixty days
(b) Eighty days
(c) Ninety days
(d) None of these

19. Suits by indigent persons are provided in _________ of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(a) Order 33
(b) Order 34
(c) Order 35
(d) Order 3

20. Which one of the following does not find a place under the provisions of Sec. 94, C.P.C. relating to supplemental proceedings?
(a) Arrest before judgment
(b) Attachment before judgment
(c) Temporary injunction
(d) Appointment of executors

21. The doctrine of res judicata is not applicable in
(a) Certiorari
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus

22. Provision regarding rejection of plant has been mentioned under _______ of the Code of Civil Procedure
(a) Order VII Rule 11
(b) Order VI Rule 13
(c) Order VII Rule 12
(d) Order VIII Rule 4

23. Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with
(a) Restitute Service
(b) Inherent power of the Court
(c) Pauper suit
(d) None of these

24. A defendant is required to file a written statement of his defence within _________days from the date of service of summons.
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) None of these

More Question Set on Law MCQs from Various Exam

25. Where a summons to the defendant(s) is returned unserved, the plaintiff has to apply for issuance of fresh summons to the defendant(s) within
(a) 14 days of the return
(b) 7 days of the return
(c) one month of the return
(d) 15 days of the return

26. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with transfer
(a) inter vivos
(b) between a living person and a non living person
(c) dead persons
(d) none of these

27. Duration of agriculture lease in the absence of written contract or local usage under section 106 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall be deemed to be a lease
(a) from month to month
(b) of eleven months
(c) from year to year
(d) of twelve year

28. What is incorrect regarding the requirement of Attestation in in Transfer of property Act,1882?
(a) There must be two or more competent witnesses
(b) They must have amnio attestendi
(c) Parties can be the competent to be attesting witness
(d) Interested person of the transaction can be the competent witnesses

29. Which one is not correct?
Immovable property does not include
(a) standing timber
(b) timber trees
(c) growing crops
(d) grass

30. Constructive notice shall be presumed in following cases
(a) Willful abstention from taking knowledge or search
(b) Gross negligence
(c) Actual possession
(d) All of these

31. Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with
(a) Conditional transfer
(b) Lis pendens
(c) Rule against perpetuity
(d) Transfer to unborn person

32. Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with
(a) Conditional transfer
(b) Lis pendens
(c) Rule against perpetuity
(d) Doctrine of election

33. The case Jumma Masji Markara vs K. Deviah is related with
(a) Feeding the grant by the estoppels’
(b) Lis pendens
(c) Part perfprmance
(d) Doctrine of election

34. The maxim ‘ut lit pendent nihil innovator’ is related with
(a) Doctrine of part performance
(b) Lis pendens
(c) Rule agains perpetuity
(d) Compromise decree

35. Doctrine of marshaling has been provided under ___________of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(a) Sections 56 and 81
(b) Sections 56 and 82
(c) Sections 61-83
(d) Section 64 to 68

36. If donee dies before accepting the gift, the gift is
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) valid
(d) none of these

37. Section 53-Aof the Transfer of Property Act deals with
(a) Lis pendens
(b) Fraudulent Transfer
(c) Part Performance
(d) None of these

38. Which among the following is correct regarding ‘usufructuary mortgage’?
(a) Mortgagor does not deliver the possession of property to mortgagee
(b) Mortgagor incurs personal liability to repay the mortgaged money
(c) There is no remedy available to mortgagee by way foreclosure
(d) Mortgagee can sale the mortgaged property to satisfy his debt

39. Right to foreclosure is available in
(a) Simple Mortgage
(b) Usufructuary mortgage
(c) Mortgage by conditional sale
(d) None of these

40. Lease has been defined under _____of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(a) Section 104
(b) Section 105
(c) Section 106
(d) Section 107

41. The Contract Act 1872 came into force on
(a) 1st September, 1872
(b) 1st July, 1872
(c) 1st August, 1872
(d) 1st November, 1872

42. “Every promise every set of promise forming consideration for each other” is known as
(a) Promise
(b) Consideration
(c) Agreement
(d) Proposal

43. “Free consent” has been defined under ___________ of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16

44. Where the relationship subsisting between the parties are such that one of the parties in position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain unfair advantage over the other, there is said to be
(a) undue influence
(b) coercion
(c) intimidation
(d) none of these

45. The difference between illegal agreement and void agreement is
(a) In illegal agreement collateral transaction is void whereas in void agreement collateral transaction is valid
(b) In illegal agreement collateral transaction is void whereas in void agreement collateral transaction is valid
(c) In illegal agreement and void agreement collateral transaction is valid
(d) None of these

46. The provision of quasi contract has been provided under section __________of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
(a) 68-72
(b) 73-75
(c) 36-38
(d) 45-49

47. The principle of pari-delicto is that where each party is equally at fault, the law favours the party who actually is
(a) not in the possession
(b) in possession
(c) injured and helpless
(d) none of these

48. In the case of anticipatory breach of contract the damages will be assessed
(a) from the promised date of performance
(b) from the date on which the breach is occurred
(c) from the date the court instructed
(d) all of these

49. Every agreement, by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract by the usual legal proceeding in the ordinary tribunal or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his right
(a) valid agreement
(b) void agreement
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

50. Which Section of the Contract Act deals with enforcement of contracts contingent on an event not happening?
(a) Section33
(b) Section 34
(c) Section 35
(d) Section 36