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Law Sample Question Papers
1. The term ‘movable property’ is defined in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 under
(a) Section 3
(b) Section (2)
(c) Section 4
(d) Not defined
2. On a transfer of property, vested interest therein is certain in favour of a person on the happening of an event which
(a) Must happen
(b) May happen
(c) Shall happen
(d) None of these
3. In a lease of immovable property what is transferred is the
(a) Right to enjoy the property
(b) Interest in the property
(c) Mesne profit
(d) Possession alone
4. The disappointment transferee for consideration has the right to be made good for
(a) The actual loss
(b) Value of the property attempted to be transferred to him
(c) The money expended by him on this behalf
(d) Compensation including future loss
5. On relinquishment of the benefit by the owner under section 35 it shall be
(a) Reverted to the transferor
(b) Vested with the disappointment
(c) Accounted for the loss sustained to the owner
(d) None of these
6. Burden of covenant runs with the land is the spirit of section ______ of the Transfer of Property Act
(a) 40
(b) 41
(c) 42
(d) 43
7. An ostensible owner of an immovable property is
(a) Real owner
(b) Qualified owner
(c) One who transfer with the consent of the real owner
(d) Owner without title
8. Lis pendens is applicable to property
(a) Immovable only
(b) Movable only
(c) Both movable and immovable
(d) Tangible and intangible
9. The provisions of charge under section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 so far as may apply to the provision of
(a) Simple mortgage
(b) Usufructuary mortgage
(c) English mortgage
(d) Anomalous mortgage
10. ‘Sale’ in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is defined under
(a) Section 53
(b) Section 54 A
(c) Section 54
(d) None of these
11. Which of the following obligations do not necessarily arise from an agreement?
(a) Torts
(b) Quasi-contract
(c) Court Judgments
(d) All of these
12. The doctrine of privity of contract means
(a) A contract without consideration
(b) An unlawful agreement
(c) A stranger to a contract can sue
(d) A stranger to a contract cannot sue
13. The latest theory of the contract is
(a) Will theory
(b) Theory of enforceability
(c) Purpose theory
(d) Fides ficta
14. Indian Contract Act contains __________ section.
(a) 145
(b) 266
(c) 482
(d) 238
15. An offer is
(a) Only a declaration of intention
(b) Only a proposal
(c) An invitation
(d) A willingness to do or abstain from doing something with a view to obtaining assent of the addressee
16. The starting point of an agreement is
(a) Offer
(b) Invitation to offer
(c) Advertisement
(d) Acceptance
17. A bid at auction sale is
(a) An implied offer to buy
(b) An expressed offer to buy
(c) An invitation to offer to buy
(d) An invitation to come to bid
18. Consider the following statements
The case of Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose
I. is the decision of the Supreme Court of India regarding minor’s contract
II. has laid down that in India a minor’s contract is void
III. has laid down that a minor’s contract becomes valid when he attains majority Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) III alone
(c) I and II
(d) II alone
19. Every contract is an agreement but every agreement is not contract. This statement is
(a) Partially correct
(b) Correct subject to certain exception
(c) Correct
(d) Wrong
20. A voidable contract is one which is
(a) Not enforceable by either of the parties thereto
(b) Enforceable by either of the parties thereto
(c) Enforceable only with the permission of the Court of Law
(d) Enforceable at the option of one of the parties thereto
21. Tort is a
(a) Civil wrong
(b) Criminal wrong
(c) Civil as well as criminal wrong
(d) None of these
22. Tort is, violation of
(a) Right in rem
(b) Right in personam
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
23. What kind of contact must be proved as an element of the tort of battery?
(a) Violent contact
(b) Contact causing some injury, however slight
(c) Any contact without the plaintiff’s consent
(d) Harmful or offensive contact
24. Law of tort has developed mainly through
(a) Enactments
(b) Customs & precedents
(c) Judicial decisions
(d) All of these
25. Which of the following tort is an exception to the rule of irrelevance of motive in the law of torts?
(a) Malicious prosecution
(b) Nuisance
(c) Conspiracy
(d) All of these
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26. Damnum implies
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Decision of House of Lords
(c) Damages
(d) Double bench opinion
27. In the case of a civil wrong, the injured party is called
(a) Defendant
(b) Opponent
(c) Accused
(d) Plaintiff
28. ‘Novus actus interveniens’ is related to
(a) Remoteness of consequences
(b) Possible consequence
(c) Direct consequence
(d) None of these
29. According to Justinian ‘every action contrary to law’ is
(a) Liberty
(b) Power
(c) Damnum
(d) Injury
30. In the case of ‘Breach of Trust’, the damages are
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Liquidated
(d) Unliquidated
31. In defamation the term innuendo means
(a) Statement must be published
(b) Secondary meaning
(c) Primary meaning
(d) None of these
32. Which of the following slanders are actionable per se without proof of special damages?
(a) Imputation of adultery
(b) Imputation of offence
(c) Imputation of disease
(d) All of these
33. The application of maxim ‘volenti non fit injuria’ is
(a) Dependent upon a valid contract
(b) Dependent upon the competence of the decision making capacity of the person at the time of giving consent
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
34. The rule in Rylands v Fletcher does not apply when the escape is due to
(a) Inevitable accident
(b) Vis major
(c) Negligence of the defendant
(d) Mistake
35. The rule of strict liability was formulated by the House of Lords in Rylands v Fletcher in
(a) 1869
(b) 1868
(c) 1885
(d) 1890
36. ‘Compensation can be awarded to a person who suffered personal injuries at the hands of Govt. officers which amounted to tortious acts’ it was held in
(a) P Rathinam v Union of India 1989 Supp (2) SCC716
(b) D K Basu v State of WB (1997) 1SCC416
(c) Rudal Shah v State of Bihar AIR 1983 SC106
(d) Arvinder Singh Bagga v State of UP AIR 1995 SC 117
37. Respondeat superior means:
(a) Let the principal or superior be responsible
(b) Let the respondent be responsible
(c) Let the defendant be superior
(d) Let the plaintiff be superior
38. A throws water at B and the drop of water falls on B. A committed
(a) Battery
(b) Assault
(c) No offence
(d) None of these
39. Which enactment provides for compensation to the victim without going into the question of fault?
(a) Fatal Accident Act
(b) Workman’s Compensation Act
(c) Motor Vehicle Act
(d) All of these
40. The famous ‘ Six carpenters’ case is related to
(a) Trespasser abinitio
(b) Malicious prosecution
(c) False imprisonment
(d) None of these
41. The Land Acquisition Act, 2013 came into force from-
(a) 1st January 2014
(b) 1st December 2013
(c) 31st December 2013
(d) 31st January 2014
42. Till 2013 the Land acquisition in India was governed by –
(a) Urban Land Ceiling and Regulation Act, 1976
(b) Land Acquisition Act of 1894
(c) Land Acquisition Act of 1891
(d) None of these
43. Which of the following is true about The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013
(a) The Act has bypassed the Constitutional Local Self Government by not recognizing them as ‘appropriate government’ in matters of land acquisition
(b) The Act focuses on providing not only compensation to the land owners but also extends rehabilitation and resettlement benefits to livelihood loser from the land in addition to the minimum compensation
(c) Under the Act land can be acquired by the Government for housing for such income groups as may be specified from time to time by the appropriate government and for private bodies also for certain purpose
(d) All of the above are true
44. Which of the following doctrine is related to the land acquisition aspect?
(a) Eminent Domain
(b) Public Trust Doctrine
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) None of these
45. In the history of modern India The Eminent Domain doctrine was challenged –
(a) During the time when Banks were nationalized
(b) During the time when land reforms was initiated
(c) Both (a) and (b) are true
(d) None of these
46. Under which provision of the Constitution of India, the Governor Mizoram is pleased to promulgate the said ordinance?
(a) Article 213(1)
(b) Article 235
(c) Article 356
(d) None of these
47. Which article of the Constitution of India provides that no of Act of Parliament in respect of ownership and Transfer of Land shall apply to the State of Mizoram unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Mizoram by a resolution decided
(a) Article 370
(b) Article 371 G
(c) Article 373
(d) None of above
48. ‘Local Authority’ defined in the ordinance includes which of the following?
(a) Village council
(b) Municipality
(c) Town planning authority
(d) All of these
49. Which section of the ordinance provides the criteria for determination of market value of land by collector by the said ordinance?
(a) Section 26
(b) Section 25
(c) Section 29
(d) None of these
50. Which section of the ordinance lays down the preparation of Social Impact Assessment study?
(a) Section 3
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 5
(d) Section 6