Practice Set on Law – Legal Questions Objective

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Law Related Questions Practice Set

1. Who is known as father of Law of Evidence?
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Sir James F. Stephen
(c) Austin
(d) None of these

2. Law of Evidence is –
(a) lex loci
(b) lex fori
(c) lex situs
(d) none of these

3. Word ‘fact’ as used in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 includes:
(a) only psychological fact
(b) only Physical fact
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

4. A fact neither proved nor disproved is known as:
(a) Not proved
(b) Disapproved
(c) Proved
(d) None of these

5. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with conclusive proof?
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 112
(c) Section 113
(d) All of these

6. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the relevancy of judgments of courts?
(a) Section 40-44
(b) Section 45-51
(c) Section 52-55
(d) Section 56-58

7. Which among the following systems is followed in India?
(a) Adversarial System
(b) Inquisitorial System
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

8. Documentary evidence may be____________
(a) Primary or secondary
(b) Attested or unattested
(c) Public or private
(d) All of these

9. Which among the following is exception of the principle “hearsay evidence is no evidence”?
(a) Res gestae
(b) Confession
(c) Admission
(d) None of these

10. The case Badri Rai vs Stateof Bihar is related with_________of the Indian Evidence Act
(a) Relevancy of Confession
(b) Relevancy of Conspiracy
(c) Relevancy of dying declaration
(d) Relevancy of Character

11. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with:
(a) Relevance of admission in Civil Cases
(b) Relevance of Oral Admissions as to Contents of Documents
(c) Relevance of Oral Admissions as to Contents of electronic record
(d) None of these

12. The word “confession”-
(a) has been defined under section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act
(b) has been defined under section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) has been defined under section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(d) has not been defined under the Indian Evidence Act

13. Confession made to other person than police during police custody is not relevant unless it has been made immediately in presence of Magistrate. This provision has been made under________ of the Indian Evidence Act
(a) Section 25
(b) Section 26
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 28

14. In which of the following cases, it was held that Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to Sections-24, 25 and 26?
(a) Pakala Narain Swamy vs. King Emperor
(b) Inayatullah vs. State of Maharashtra
(c) State of U.P. vs. Deoman Upadhyaya
(d) P. Kottayya vs. King Emperor

15. A dying declaration in India is admissible:
(a) if it is regarding cause of death
(b) there must be direct relationship between cause and effect
(c) the person making declaration must die
(d) All of these

16. The examination of a witness by the Adverse Party shall be called:
(a) Examination-in-Chief
(b) Cross-Examination
(c) Re-Examination
(d) None of these

17. Expert opinion is relevant for:
(a) Science
(b) Hand writing
(c) Finger impression
(d) All of these

18. Relevancy of character has been provided from_________ of the Indian Evidence Act.
(a) Section 51-54
(b) Section 52-55
(c) Section 53-56
(d) None of these

19. Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act provides about
(a) private document
(b) public document
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

20. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act provides about the presumption of legitimacy of Child?
(a) Section 110
(b) Section 111
(c) Section 112
(d) None of these

21. If it is proved that sexual intercourse has been committed against a woman and she says her consent was absent. Then the court shall presume that her consent was absent. The burden of proof in this case shall lie on the accused to prove that her consent was present. This provision was laid down in:
(a) Section 13 A
(b) Section 114 A
(c) Section 115
(d) None of these

22. Doctrine of estoppel is not applicable:
(a) against sovereign act
(b) against statute
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

23. A Communication made to the spouse from one another during marriage has been provided under _______the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
(a) Section 121
(b) Section 122
(c) Section 123
(d) Section 124

24. Provision of leading question is mentioned under _____of the Indian Evidence Act.
(a) 141 to 143
(b) 135 to 137
(c) 142 to 144
(d) None of these

25. ‘An accomplice cannot corroborate another’. The statement is______
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly correct
(d) None of these

More Question Set on Law MCQs from Various Exam

26. The Information Technology Act, 2000, is based on is based on:
(a) The UNCITRAL Model
(b) UNDP Model
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

27. How many Sections and schedules are there in Information Technology Act 2000?
(a) 93 sections and 3 Schedules
(b) 94 Sections and 4 Schedules
(c) 4 Sections and 3 Schedules
(d) None of these

28. The United nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on Electronic Signatures in
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002

29. Who among the following appoints the Controller Certifying Authorities?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) None of these

30. Which among the following is not correct? Every application for issue of a license shall be accompanied by:
(a) a certification practice statement
(b) a statement including the procedures with respect to identification of the applicant
(c) payment of such fees, not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees as may be prescribed by the State Government
(d) such other documents, as may be prescribed by the Central Government

31. Which is not correct? The Controller may, if he is satisfied after making such inquiry, as he may think fit, that:
(a) a Certifying Authority has made a statement in, or in relation to, the application for the issue or renewal of the license, which is incorrect or false in material particulars
(b) a Certifying Authority has failed to comply with the terms and conditions subject to which the license was granted
(c) a Certifying Authority has failed to maintain the standards specified under clause (b) of subsection (2) of section 20
(d) The license can be suspended for more than ten days even without giving certifying authority the reasonable opportunity of showing cause

32. Who can issue the digital signature certificate?
(a) Controller
(b) Certifying Authority
(c) both of the above
(d) none of these

33. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 has the Cyber Appellate Tribunal been established?
(a) Sec. 46
(b) Sec. 47
(c) Sec. 48
(d) Sec. 49

34. The first Presiding Officer of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal was:
(a) Justice R.C. Jain
(b) Justice S.K. Krishnan
(c) Justice Karthik
(d) Justice Sadhna

35. Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal:
(a) To the High Court within thirty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(b) To the High Court within forty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(c) To Supreme Court within one year from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(d) None of these

36. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, whoever, makes any misrepresentation to, or suppresses any material fact from, the Controller or the Certifying Authority for obtaining any licence or Digital Signature Certificate, as the case may be-
(a) shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.
(b) shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.
(c) shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.
(d) None of these

37. Who can constitute Cyber Regulation Advisory Committee under the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) High Court
(d) None of these

38. Supreme Court of India declared _______of the Information Technology Act, 2000 unconstitutional.
(a) Section 66A
(b) Section 66B
(c) Section 66C
(d) Section 66F

39. Which section of Information Technology Act deals with Child pornography?
(a) Section 67D
(b) Section 67F
(c) Section 67C
(d) Section 67B

40. What is the maximum penalty for damage to Computer, Computer systems, unauthorized access, download of data, infecting with virus, denial of access etc as per Section 43 of the IT Act,
(a) Rs. 50 lakh
(b) Rs. 1 crore
(c) Rs. 5 crore
(d) Rs. 75 lakh

41. Punishment for violation of privacy is given in:
(a) Sec. 66A of the Information Technology Act
(b) Sec. 66B of the Information Technology Act
(c) Sec. 66D of the Information Technology Act
(d) Sec. 66E of the Information Technology Act

42. Which of the following is not considered good practise for password security?
(a) Changing the password on a regular basis
(b) Using a combination of upper and lower-case characters, a number, and a special character in the password
(c) Use the same password for more than one account
(d) None of these

43. When someone forcefully takes control of a website (by cracking the password and later changing it, it is called:
(a) Web Jacking
(b) Logic bombs
(c) Cyber terrorism
(d) None of these

44. To protect e-mail, which of the following activity/activities is/are necessary?
(a) Do not open untrusted/unknown emails (spam)
(b) Do not keep your computer unattended to avoid misuse
(c) Always lock/shutdown the computer when not in use
(d) All of these

45. Spoofing means:
(a) Capable of sending data by attacker with the illusion that it is coming from a different source.
(b) Changing the password on a regular basis
(c) Using a combination of upper and lower-case characters, a number, and a special character in the password
(d) None of these

46. National Cyber Security Policy has been issued in:
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2013
(d) 2014

47. If a person denies access to an authorised personnel to a computer resource, accesses a protected system or introduces contaminant into a system, with the intention of threatening the unity, integrity, sovereignty or security of India, then he commits cyber terrorism. For this act he can be penalised for:
(a) life imprisonment
(b) ten years imprisonment
(c) fifteen years imprisonment
(d) None of these

48. How many Schedules are there in Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

49. Which Section of Information Technology Act, 2000, grants powers to the Central Government to issue directions for blocking of public access to any information through any computer resource?
(a) Section 69
(b) Section 69A
(c) Section 70
(d) None of these

50. Gaining of unauthorized access to data stored in a computer system is called
(a) Defacement
(b) Phising
(c) Hacking
(d) None of these