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Old Questions Paper on Law from Previous Exam

1. As originally enacted, the Indian Penal Code contained ……. Sections.
(a) 511
(b) 488
(c) 530
(d) 482

2. Now the Indian Penal Code contains ………sections
(a) 511
(b) 488
(c) 530
(d) 482

3. The aim of criminal law is
(a) Compensation
(b) Damages
(c) Punishment
(d) None of these

4. Provision of Extraterritorial Jurisdiction of Indian Penal Code has been provided: under section:
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 5
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7

5. In the offence of kidnapping, the actusreus is in respect of………
(a) Place
(b) Time
(c) Person
(d) State of mind of the victim

6. Actus Reus includes
(a) Positive acts only
(b) Negative acts only
(c) Both positive and negative acts
(d) None of these

7. In which of the following offences, mensrea is not an essential ingredient?
(a) Bigamy
(b) Kidnapping
(c) Public nuisance
(d) All of these

8. Which among the following are exception of actus non-facit reum nisi mens, sit rea?
(a) Theft
(b) Culpable homicide
(c) Kidnapping
(d) Wrongful Confinement

9. The Fundamental principle of criminal liability is embodied in the maxim “actus non facitreum nisi mens sit rea”. The maxim was developed by :
(a) Equity Courts
(b) Common Law Courts
(c) SardarNizamat Courts
(d) None of these

10. ‘Dishonestly’ has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person & wrongful loss to another, under
(a) Section 21
(b) Section 23
(c) Section 24
(d) Section 25

11. When a criminal act is done by several persons in a furtherance of common intention of all
(a) Each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
(b) Each of such person is liable for his own overt act
(c) Each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime
(d) Both (b) & (c)

12. Which of the following cases is related with mistake of fact?
(a) R. vs Prince
(b) R. vs Richardson
(c) R. vs Hicklin
(d) None of these

13. The maxim ‘ignorantiajuris non excusat’ means
(a) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(b) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
(c) Ignorance of law is an excuse
(d) Ignorance of fact is an excuse

14. Section 82 of IPC enunciates
(a) a presumption of fact
(b) a rebuttable presumption of law
(c) a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
(d) none of these

15. The principle ‘ de minimus non curatlex ‘ is contained in
(a) Section 92 of IPC
(b) Section 93 of IPC
(c) Section 94 of IPC
(d) Section 95 of IPC

16. X ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now
(a) X has committed abetment and Y has committed assault
(b) X has committed abetment and Y has committed no offence
(c) X and Y have committed no offence
(d) X has committed no offence but Y has committed offence of subordination.

17. For an unlawful assembly under section 141 of IPC, the minimum number of persons required is
(a) Five
(b) Seven
(c) Ten
(d) twenty

18. For application of section 149 of IPC
(a) a person should be a member of the unlawful assembly and should actively participate in the commission of offence
(b) a person should be a member of the unlawful assembly but need not necessarily participate himself in the commission of the offence
(c) need not be a member of unlawful assembly but must share a common intention to commit the offence
(d) need not be a member of unlawful assembly but must participate in the commission of the offence

19. Culpable homicide has been defined
(a) under section 299 of IPC
(b) under section 300 of IPC
(c) under section 302 of IPC
(d) under section 304 of IPC

20. Wrongful confinement has been defined under
(a) section 342 of IPC
(b) section 341 of IPC
(c) section 340 of IPC
(d) section 339 of IPC

21. The involvement of five or more persons is essential for
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) robbery
(d) dacoity

22. Y, a small boy was guarding the field. Z and M outsiders trespassed and stared harvesting, on protest by Y they beat him up and hearing his cries, X and P, Uncles of Y who were working in different directions, rushed in, one of them X, fired at the trespassers killing one of them and ran away. P was arrested and charged under section 302 of the IPC for murder read with section 34. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) he is liable for murder because of the similar intention of both the brothers
(b) he is liable for murder because of the same intention of both the brothers
(c) he is liable for murder because he was present when his brother forced at the trespassers
(d) he is not liable because there was no common intention to kill

23. “P gives grave and sudden provocation to M. M on this provocation, fires a pistol at p, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill Q . Who is near him but out of the sight, M kills Q”. Taking the view of this illustration give the correct answer.
(a) It is murder
(b) It is not a murder but culpable homicide
(c) It is neither a murder nor a culpable homicide
(d) It is a culpable homicide

24. Under which among the following cases, the Supreme Court held that woman can be arrested by police at any time and even in absence of lady constable if the arresting officer records the proper reason for such arrest?
(a) State of Maharashtra v. Christian Community Welfare council of India, AIR 2004 SC 7
(b) R. D. Nayak v. State of Gujrat, AIR 2004 SC 23
(c) State of Uttar Pradesh v. LalitTandon, (2004) SC 23
(d) Kamalji Sing v. State of Punjub, AIR 2004 SC 69

25. X, a police officer, has a warrant of arrest for Y. He asks Z as to the identity of Y. Z knowingly tells X that M is Y and consequently X arrests M.
(a) Z is guilty of abetment by instigation
(b) Z is guilty of abetment by aiding
(c) Z is guilty of abetment by false representation
(d) Z is guilty of abetment any kind only of mischief

More Question Set on Law MCQs from Various Exam

26. A person who is avoiding execution of a warrant may be proclaimed absconder under ____________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
(a) Section 81
(b) Section 83
(c) Section 82
(d) Section 84

27. A precise formulation of the specific accusation made against a person who is entitled to know its nature at the earliest stage, is called
(a) FIR
(b) Charge
(c) Charge sheet
(d) Police report

28. Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the term ‘cognizable offences’?
(a) Section 2(a)
(b) Section 2(b)
(c) Section 2(c)
(d) Section 2(d)

29. ‘All cognizable offences are non-bailable’. The statement is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly Correct
(d) None of these

30. In a cognizable case, the arrest
(a) Is mandatory
(b) Depends on the discretion of police
(c) Depends on the discretion of court
(d) None of these

31. Which of the following sections of the Code of the Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the term ‘complaint’?
(a) Section 2(a)
(b) Section 2(b)
(c) Section 2(c)
(d) Section 2(d)

32. A petition for maintenance under section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is
(a) A complaint
(b) Not a complaint
(c) Protest petition
(d) None of these

33. In a warrant case instituted on a police report, the trial begins when the
(a) Accused appears
(b) Charge is framed
(c) Witnesses are examined
(d) None of these

34. If the offence was committed outside the limit of a police station, the officer-in-charge of the police station can transmit the FIR to the police station having such territorial jurisdiction. The statement is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly correct
(d) None of these

35. In a cognizable case.
(a) All offences must be cognizable
(b) Most of the offences must be cognizable
(c) One of the offences must be cognizable
(d) None of these

36. ‘Warrant-case’ means a case relating to an offence punishable with death imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding………. Years.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

37. Can an Advocate General for the State perform the functions of a Public Prosecutor?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends
(d) None of these

38. An additional Sessions Judge may pass
(a) Any sentence authorized by Law
(b) Any sentence except the death sentence
(c) Any sentence except the death sentence and life imprisonment
(d) None of these

39. What is the maximum sentence of imprisonment a chief judicial magistrate can pass?
(a) Seven years
(b) Ten years
(c) Five years
(d) None of these

40. An accused arrested can be kept in custody without producing him before the magistrate, after his arrest for a period of ……
(a) 12 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 90 days

41. Every police officer while making an arrest shall
(a) Bear an accurate, visible and clear identification of his name which will facilitate easy identification
(b) Prepare a memorandum of arrest
(c) Inform the person arrested unless the memorandum is attested by a member of his family, that he has the right to have a relative or a friend named by him to be informed of his arrest
(d) All of these

42. Any private person may arrest or cause to be arrested
(a) Any person who in his presence commits an non-bailable and cognizable offence
(b) Any proclaimed offender
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

43. Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 as amended by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 mandates the compulsory medical examination of arrested persons?
(a) Section 46
(b) Section 54
(c) Section 26
(d) Section 25

44. Which of the following sections is supplementary to sections 57 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(a) Section 161
(b) Section 162
(c) Section 167
(d) Section 168

45. The procedure for serving the summons is provided in section …………….of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
(a) Section 59
(b) Section 60
(c) Section 61
(d) Section 62

46. A warrant of arrest may be executed
(a) At any place within the jurisdiction of the court, which issued the warrant
(b) At any place within the State
(c) At any place in India
(d) At any place in the world

47. Can a proclamation under section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 be published in a newspaper?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends
(d) None of these

48. Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for the arrest on breach of bond for appearance?
(a) Section 89
(b) Section 86
(c) Section 87
(d) Section 88

49. Who among the following is duty bound to give maintenance?
(a) All married persons
(b) Any persons neglects or refuses to maintain
(c) Any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain
(d) None of these

50. Can the statements recorded under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 be used to corroborate the evidence of prosecution witness?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends
(d) None of these