Managerial Round Interview Questions

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Managerial Round Interview Questions

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Managerial Round Sample Questions

1. Which among the following is NOT an assumption of Pareto optimality?
(A) Every consumer wishes to maximize his level of satisfaction
(B) All the factors of production are used in the production of every commodity
(C) Conditions of perfect competition exist making all the factors of production perfectly mobile
(D) The concept of utility is cardinal and cardinal utility function of every consumer is given

2. Which among the following is a cause of inflation?
(A) Deficit financing
(B) Rise in external loans
(C) Unfavourable balance of payment
(D) A hike in the CRR by the Central Bank of the country

3. Income elasticity of demand is defined as the responsiveness of:
(A) Quantity demanded to a change in income
(B) Quantity demanded to a change in price
(C) Price to a change in income
(D) Income to a change in quantity demanded

4. On which law of consumption, the concept of consumer’s surplus is based?
(A) Engel’s law
(B) Law of demand
(C) First law of Gossen
(D) Second law of Gossen

5. In an organization, for solving an issue shared by various departments, a task force is created, which is?
(A) Restored after accomplishment
(B) Continue after accomplishment
(C) Integrated full time
(D) Disbanded after accomplishment

6. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem-orientation
(C) Idea protocol
(D) Mind mapping

7. Which among the following is operative function of Human Resource Management and are related to specific activities of personnel management?
(A) Internal mobility
(B) Grouping of personnel activities
(C) Supervising the personnel
(D) Selection and training of employees

8. Employee orientation programme serves many purposes excluding one:
(A) Act as a valuable source of information
(B) Creates a good impression
(C) Acquaintance of superior for marking level of management
(D) Remove fears

9. Change in behaviour acquired through practice and training is defined as:
(A) Motivation
(B) Learning
(C) Acquired experience
(D) Acquired behaviour

10. Individual behaviour as a result of internal and external factors or influences acting together is explained by:
(A) MARS Model
(B) MERS Model
(C) OB Model of IB
(D) IB Model

11. The process by which people group environmental stimuli into recognization pattern is known as:
(A) Perpetual Selection
(B) Perpetual Stimuli
(C) Perpetual Organization
(D) Perpetual Arrangement

12. Extroversion personality dimension does not comprise of:
(A) Assertive
(B) Cooperative
(C) Outgoing
(D) Talkative

13. Which amongst the following is most possible risk faced by whistle blower?
(A) Goal sharing by the other employee in the organization
(B) Endangering individual and organizational reputation due to his/her fault
(C) Ethical and moral disclosing practices
(D) Allocation of less favourable work or promotion

14. Who among the following is NOT a dependent under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923?
(A) A widower
(B) A minor illegitimate son
(C) A daughter-in-law
(D) A minor widowed sister

15. Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing workforce diversity?
(A) Changing demogaphies
(B) Product quality consciousness
(C) Political and legal systems
(D) Globalisation of business

16. Difference between job enrichment and job enlargement is that:
(A) Enlarged jobs include some of the planning and control systems whereas enrichment means getting more money for the same job
(B) Enlarged jobs contains a large number of similar tasks, while enriched jobs include some of the planning and control in hands of job holder
(C) Enriched and enlarge jobs include performing number of boring jobs as well along with the one he is performing
(D) Enlarged jobs include promotion of the position while enriched jobs is performing various tasks same time

17. Recognition, positive reinforcement and employee empowerment can be used to avoid the ……………………
(A) Turnover
(B) Conflict
(C) Accident
(D) Frustration

18. Which of the following is NOT a step of talent management?
(A) Developing Talent
(B) Controlling Talent
(C) Retaining Talent
(D) Attracting Talent

19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ‘Spaghetti Organization Structure’ adopted by MNCs?
(A) Paperless Organization
(B) Smart office design
(C) ‘Meat Balls’ or Knowledge Centres
(D) Formal communication between people

20. The term ‘‘Blackleg’ refers to:
(A) A worker who forcibly joins those who are on strike
(B) A worker who continue to work when his/her co-workers in the establishment are on strike
(C) A worker who wears black shoes while on duty
(D) A supervisor who fires his subordinates

Retail Management Project Coordinator
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Marketing Management Managerial Round
People Management Project Management
Operation Management Managers
Sales Management

21. Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is called:
(A) Need base assistance
(B) Social assurance
(C) Social assistance
(D) Mutual assistance

22. As per the force field analysis, change will take place when:
(A) Driving force equals the restraining force
(B) Driving force and the restraining force correlate with one another
(C) Driving force is stronger than resistance force
(D) Restraining force is stronger than driving force

23. The focus of ………………. is on the linkage of business strategies with human resource strategies.
(A) Best Practice Approach
(B) HR Bundles Approach
(C) Best Fit Approach
(D) Best Preserve Approach

24. Which of the following is not one of Schein’s career anchors?
(A) Artistic Expression
(B) Autonomy/Independence
(C) Pure Challenge
(D) Managerial Competence

25. Bargaining that focuses on convincing the other party that the cost of disagreeing with the proposed terms would be very high is known as ……………………..
(A) Integrative bargaining
(B) Distributive bargaining
(C) Mutual bargaining
(D) Tough bargaining

26. Assets are recorded at their original purchase price according to the:
(A) Materiality concept
(B) Historical cost principle
(C) Cost-benefit principle
(D) Consistency principle

27. …………………. ratios measure the speed with which various accounts/ assets are converted into sales or cash.
(A) Activity
(B) Liquidity
(C) Profitability
(D) Leverage

28. Which of the following shows summary of a company’s financial position at a specific date?
(A) Profit & Loss Account
(B) Cash flow statement
(C) Balance sheet
(D) Income and expenditure Account

29. Total of all direct costs is termed as …………………….. .
(A) Works cost
(B) Prime cost
(C) Cost of production
(D) Cost of sales

30. As per J. Batty, standard cost represents ……………….. under given conditions.
(A) Anticipated costs
(B) Current costs
(C) Historical costs
(D) Unique costs

31. The only viable goal of financial management is:
(A) Profit maximisation
(B) Wealth maximisation
(C) Sales maximisation
(D) Assets maximisation

32. Which of the following approaches is similar to NOI approach of capital structure decisions?
(A) NI approach
(B) Modigliani-Miller approach
(C) Markowitz approach
(D) Leveraging approach

33. ………………. may be described as a process of finding out what is being done and comparing actual results with the corresponding budget data in order to approve accomplishment.
(A) Budget
(B) Budgeting
(C) Budgetary control
(D) Capital expenditure

34. …………………. is caused due to fixed operating expenses in a firm.
(A) Leveraged buyout
(B) Operating leverage
(C) Financial leverage
(D) Combined leverage

35. Given the coupon rate to be constant, the value of bond, as it approaches to maturity, will converge to …………………….
(A) its par value
(B) its redemption value
(C) its issued value
(D) its premium value

36. Projects A and B are mutually exclusive projects having unequal lives. Criteria to be used when there is a conflict in choice by using NPV and IRR method is:
(A) Annualized NPV
(B) Annualized IRR
(C) Base rate PI
(D) Indifference Rate

37. NPV assumes that intermediate cash flows are reinvested at …………….. but IRR assumes that intermediate cash flows are reinvested at ………..
(A) Cost of capital and IRR
(B) IRR and cost of capital
(C) Rate of inflation and rate of discounting
(D) IRR and ARR

38. Which of the following is not a DCF technique for capital budgeting decision?
(A) Net present value
(B) Benefit cost ratio
(C) Internal Rate of Return
(D) Accounting Rate of Return

39. Under what condition is the Walter model similar to the MM hypothesis with regards to payment of dividends?
(A) r > k
(B) r = k
(C) r < k
(D) There is no such condition

40. When a company creates a new company from the existing single entity, it is called …………………….
(A) Merger
(B) Sell-off
(D) Spin-off

41. ……………………. is a graphic depiction of CAPM and describes the market price of risk in capital markets.
(C) Indifference curve
(D) Efficient portfolio

42. When the holder of a put or call option does not lose or gain whether or NOT he exercises his option, the option is said to be ………………. .
(A) In-the-money
(B) Out-of-the-money
(C) On-the-money
(D) At-the-money

43. Which of the following is not a motive for holding inventories?
(A) Transaction motive
(B) Precautionay motive
(C) Speculative motive
(D) Migration motive

44. Which one of the following is not a type of foreign exchange exposure?
(A) Transaction exposure
(B) Thematic exposure
(C) Economic exposure
(D) Translation exposure

45. AIDA model of IMC is best described as:
(A) Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
(B) Action, Impression, Development, Attention
(C) Advertising, Individual product, Direct marketing, Action
(D) Attention, Inform, Desire, Advertising

46. If a company makes unrelated diversification, it will be known as:
(A) Concentric Diversification
(B) Conglomerate Diversification
(C) Controlled Diversification
(D) Rapid Diversification

47. If any company launches its product with low price, the pricing strategy is known as:
(A) Skimming pricing
(B) Penetration pricing
(C) Cost-plus pricing
(D) Competitive pricing

48. The word tactic is most likely to be associated with:
(A) Corporate Strategy
(B) Operational Strategy
(C) Business Strategy
(D) Environmental Strategy

49. Which of the following is not part of Micro-Environment?
(A) Competitors
(B) Customers
(C) Technology
(D) Suppliers

50. Changing consumer’s perception of a brand in relation to its previous image is known as:
(A) Positioning
(B) Repositioning
(C) Branding
(D) Targeting