Incident Management Interview Questions

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Incident Management Interview Questions

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Questions on Incident Management

1. Which of the following is not one of the four elements in innovation process?
(A) New Knowledge Creation
(B) Commercial Application
(C) Organising Resources
(D) Analytical Planning

2. Which of the following is not a phase in business plan preparation?
(A) Setting business goals
(B) Locating Resources
(C) Analysing Competitions
(D) Developing the labour market

3. The entrepreneurial activity is most prevalent in:
(A) United States
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) Great Britain

4. The elements of good corporate governance in India have been laid down by:

5. Which of the following is not a stakeholder in the CSR?
(A) Creditors
(B) Environment
(C) Government

6. Which of the following key force influences a person’s ethics?
(A) Nationality
(B) Education
(C) Family influences
(D) Relationship of the firm to the employee

7. A personality measure of the strength of a person’s convictions is:
(A) locus of control
(B) locus of value
(C) ego strength
(D) bench strength

8. Greed is the cornerstone of human values under:
(A) Socialism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Mixed economy
(D) Racialism

9. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) MC is a subset of incremental cost
(B) Incremental cost is a subset of MC
(C) MC is subset of sunk cost
(D) Sunk cost is a subset of incremental cost

10. In order to predict human behaviour, it is best to supplement your intuitive opinions with information derived in what fashion?
(A) Common sense
(B) Systematic inquiry
(C) Direct observation
(D) Organisational theory

11. ………………………………………….absolves the employer’s liability under the Maternity Benefit Act and Workmen’s Compensation Act.
(A) Employee’s Provident Fund Act, 1952
(B) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946
(C) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

12. As per Pecking-Order theory, the first financing choice in order of preference is:
(A) Retained earnings
(B) Non-convertible debt
(C) Preference shares
(D) Equity

13. Identify the incorrect pair of “Strategy–Approach”:
(A) Market Penetration—Increase number of users
(B) Market Development—Sell in new locations
(C) Product Development— Improve Technology
(D) Diversification—Convince non-users to use the product

14. Organise the following in the correct sequence:
(1) Knowledge
(2) Business Intelligence
(3) Data
(4) Information
Choose the right option:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (1), (4), (2), (3)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (3), (4), (2), (1)

15. Which of the following is not a force in the Porter’s Five Forces Model?
(A) Bargaining Power of Buyers
(B) Bargaining Power of Suppliers
(C) Industry Rivalry
(D) Bargaining Power of Dealers

16. Which of the following is not among the thrust areas of policy for SSIs in India?
(A) Resources availability
(B) Rehabilitation of sick SSI units
(C) Timely and adequate credit availability
(D) Quality improvement support

17. On basis of the statements given below, answer the following question:
Puffery in advertisement is:
(1) An exaggerated claim in an advertisement that is considered as illegal
(2) An exaggerated claim in an advertisement that is considered as legal
(3) Usage of claims like ‘best’, ‘greatest’, ‘finest’, for a product or service
(4) Based on the concept of ‘Placebo Effect’
(A) Options (1) and (3) are correct
(B) Options (1) and (2) are correct
(C) Options (1), (3), (4) are correct
(D) Options (2), (3) and (4) are correct

18. The process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill is called:
(A) Recruitment
(B) Selection
(C) Personnel Planning
(D) Interviewing

19. Training evaluation criteria include all but:
(A) Reactions
(B) Results
(C) Relevance
(D) Behaviour

20. Why is international trade significant among countries?
(A) For promoting the world peace
(B) For decreasing cost of production
(C) For difference in the taste and preference among nations
(D) To earn foreign exchange

Retail Management Project Coordinator
Facilities Management Program Management
Financial Management Managers
Incident Management Product Management
Stakeholder Management Team Leader
Marketing Management Managerial Round
People Management Project Management
Operation Management Managers
Sales Management

21. The component of an effective performance management process that explains each employee’s role in terms of his or her day-to-day work is called:
(A) Role clarification
(B) Goal alignment
(C) Developmental goal setting
(D) Direction sharing

22. Which concept shows the overall output generated at a given level of input?
(A) Cost function
(B) Production function
(C) Marginal rate of technical substitution
(D) Isocost

23. Balance Score Card emphasizes on:
(A) only the strategy
(B) the importance of measuring business performance
(C) critical incident method
(D) intellectual capital

24. Inputs to the selection process include all but:
(A) Job applicants
(B) Human resource planning
(C) Supervision
(D) Job analysis

25. Which of the following approaches to dividend valuation assumes a constant non-growing dividend stream?
(A) Constant growth model
(B) Variable growth model
(C) Zero growth model
(D) Gordon model

26. When a manager focuses on making whatever products are easy to produce, and then trying to sell them, that manager has a……………………………orientation.
(A) Marketing
(B) Production
(C) Sales
(D) Profit

27. Organise the following activities in production planning process in the correct order:
(1) Master Production Schedule
(2) Raw Material Purchase Orders
(3) Aggregate Production Planning
(4) Material Requirements Planning
Choose the right option:
(A) (3), (1), (2), (4)
(B) (3), (1), (4), (2)
(C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

28. The standard error of the mean will decrease:
(A) As the sample size increases
(B) As the sample standard deviation increases
(C) To a point and then remains constant
(D) As the sample size decreases

29. A dog division stands for:
(A) A low market growth rate but high market share
(B) A high market growth rate and high market share
(C) A high market growth rate and low market share
(D) A low market growth rate and low market share

30. What are the areas of primary focus for “Public Entrepreneurship”?
Which deals with revitalization of government agencies?
(A) Creation, Innovation
(B) Customer, Creation
(C) Customer, Efficiency
(D) Innovation, Efficiency

31. Choose the correct option:
Performance Review System, that makes managers rate people on normal distribution curve:
(A) Is ethically correct
(B) Values the full development of peoples’ potential
(C) Creates misalignment between values and practices
(D) Increases productivity of employees

32. Which of the following techniques is least susceptible to personal biases?
(A) Rating scales
(B) Check lists
(C) Forced choice

33. Based on the statements below select the correct answer:
Hybrid systems:
(1) Are similar in operations to the multiple channel system
(2) Are systems where channel members perform complementary services
(3) Are more vertical
(4) Improve level of performance.
(A) Statements (1) and (3) are correct
(B) Statements (1) and (2) are correct
(C) Statements (2) and (4) are correct
(D) Statements (2) and (3) are correct

34. Because personal selling is taking on a more prominent role in the corporate marketing mix, selling today:
(A) requires fewer and less intensive communication skills than previously
(B) has become a less attractive career for college graduates
(C) Involves more use of communications and computer technologies
(D) Places greater focus on short-term persuation, with less emphasis on consultation and problem solving

35. Which is the correct sequence, if we arrange various sources of finance from costliest to cheapest in terms of their cost of capital?
(A) Equity, Retained earnings, Debt, Preference
(B) Retained earnings, Equity, Preference, Debt
(C) Debt, equity, Preference, Retained Earnings
(D) Preference, Debt, Equity, Retained earnings

36. Which of the following is a non-DCF technique?
(A) PI

37. Which theory considers the possibility of trade between two countries having the same factor endowment and consumer preference?
(A) Comparative advantage theory
(B) Heckscher—Ohlin theory
(C) Imitation-gap theory
(D) Absolute advantage theory

38. Role playing is often used to:
(A) Change attitudes
(B) Learn skills
(C) Change results
(D) Model behaviour

39. A demand curve suggesting unitary elasticity through out shall be:
(A) a rectangular hyperbola
(B) a straight line parallel to X-axis
(C) a straight line parallel to Y-axis
(D) a negatively sloping straight line of 45° angle

40. A common method of measuring attitudes is by using:
(A) in-depth interviews
(B) observing people’s behaviour
(C) systematic differential scales
(D) a lie detector

41. Which of the following is not an environmental challenge facing human resources?
(A) Competition for scarce inputs
(B) Governmental rules and regulations
(C) Global competition
(D) Environmental activities

42. Assertion (A): Dividing a segment into subsegments with a distinctive set of traits seeking a special combination of benefits
Reasoning (R): Godrej company introduced Ezee to target the consumers who wanted mild washing detergent for woollen clothes.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

43. For a ‘t’ distribution, increasing the sample size will affect:
(1) degrees of freedom
(2) the ‘t’ ratio
(3) standard error of mean
Choose the correct option:
(A) (1) only
(B) (2) only
(C) (3) only
(D) (1), (2) and (3)

44. Which of the following sets of activities truly reflects the strategic implementation?
(A) Leadership implementation, Organizational restructuring, Quality monitoring
(B) Resource allocation, Quality monitoring Management policies, Leadership implementation
(C) Organizational restructuring, Resource allocation Management policies, Maintenance management
(D) Leadership implementation, Resource allocation, Management policies, Organizational restructuring

45. Which of the following sets of factors should an entrepreneur considers carefully before selecting a new project?
(A) Investment size, Location technology, Market conditions
(B) Investment size, competition, expertise, age, gender
(C) Investment size, Market conditions, Gestation period, Expertise
(D) Investment size, Repayment capability, Availability of loans, Profit margins

46. Which of the following is not a stakeholder of a company?
(A) Employee
(B) Customer
(C) Competitors
(D) Shareholder

47. Sabbatical means:
(A) Extra pay for not taking sick leave
(B) An extended leave of absence
(C) Benefits for time not worked
(D) Membership-based, non-financial rewards offered to attract and retain employees

48. The gap between what customers expect and what they receive when dealing with a firm, is:
(A) Related to the price they paid for something, not its quality
(B) Always positive because the higher of the two values is counted first
(C) One measure of their satisfaction with a firm and its products
(D) Impossible to measure because it is subjective, not objective

49. Which is the correct equation that calculates P (Profit before tax). Assume selling price per unit = Rs. S, variable cost per unit = Rs. V Number of units sold = U units and Total fixed costs = Rs. F.
(A) P = SV – F
(B) P = U(S – V) – F
(C) P = FS – V
(D) P = S(V – F)

50. The exports to countries belonging to erstwhile British empire is called:
(B) Commonwealth