Product Management Interview Questions

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Product Management Interview Questions

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Questions on Product Management

1. The horizontal demand curve parallel to X-axis implies that the elasticity of demand is:
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) Equal to one
(D) Greater than zero but less than infinity

2. In order to control credit, Reserve Bank of India should:
(A) Increase CRR and decrease Bank rate
(B) Decrease CRR and reduce Bank rate
(C) Increase CRR and increase Bank rate
(D) Reduce CRR and increase Bank rate

3. How can organisational structures that are characterised by democratic and inclusive styles of management be described?
(A) Hierarchical
(B) Bureaucratic
(C) Flat
(D) Functional

4. Which of the international financial institutions provides a ‘soft loan window’ from which developing countries can borrow in hard currencies?
(A) International Development Authority
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) International Finance Corporation
(D) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

5. According to Mintzberg a typical manager acts as a:
(A) Concealer
(B) Withholder
(C) Toddler
(D) Resource Allocator

6. Which of the following is not a method of performance appraisal?
(A) Forced distribution method
(B) Factor comparison method
(C) Force choice method
(D) Critical incidence method

7. Any employees disclosure of an employer’s illegal, immoral, or illegitimate practices to persons or organizations that may be able to take corrective action is known as:
(A) Risk taking
(B) Disclosing
(C) Whistleblowing
(D) Risk disclosure

8. Growth need in Aldrfer’s ERG model of motivation akin to which need of hierarchy theory?
(A) Esteem need
(B) Physiological need
(C) Security need
(D) Safety need

9. If an organization counts on a culture which rated with high power distance, then such organization is characterised by:
(A) Active subordinates
(B) High trust between the peoples
(C) Balance between seniors and juniors
(D) Centralized decision-making

10. Which stage of Tuckman model of group development is more apparent in temporary group?
(A) Adjourning
(B) Storming
(C) Norming
(D) Forming

11. What is ‘Neotony’ as a leadership trait advanced by Bennis and Thomas?
(A) Calm, confident and predictable under stressful condition
(B) Youthful, curious playful, fearless, warm and energetic
(C) Encouraging dissent, empathy and obsessive communication
(D) Ambitions, morally strong and competence

12. Buzz-Sessions helps in:
(a) Making workers versatile
(b) Making labour more skilled and hardworking
(c) Eliminating those employees who sit through the conference session but, do not participate
(d) Stimulating discussion and participation from each number of groups
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)

13. A pay system that rewards employees for developing knowledge or skill is a:
(A) Time motion system
(B) Measured hours work system
(C) Knowledge based system
(D) Profit sharing system

14. Examine the following statements about span of control and identify the statements which are true?
(a) More task complexity requires narrower span of control
(b) Routine tasks can have greater span of control than exceptional tasks
(c) When tasks are dissimilar, then span of control can be larger
(d) Spans of control are generally narrower at the top and broader at the bottom of the hierarchy
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)

15. The conceptual framework of labour welfare is contained in various theories of labour welfare. From the names of the theories given below, pick the wrong ones:
(a) The trusteeship theory
(b) The placating theory
(c) The need theory
(d) The friendship theory
(e) The public relations theory
(f) The functional theory
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (e) and (f)
(C) (b) and (e)
(D) (c) and (d)

16. Who has given the meaning of ‘Conjunction’ in industrial relations as ‘‘A state of relationship under which the parties, instead of offering their best, offer the least in the absence of which the relationship will break’’?
(A) Selig Perlman
(B) Neil W Chamberlain
(C) Francis Walker
(D) Ian Clegg

17. Which of the following strategic initiatives will help employee retention effort of an organization?
(1) The perception of equity in rewards
(2) Work-life balance initiatives
(3) Exit interviews
(4) Non-poaching agreements
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (1), (2) and (3)
(C) (1), (2) and (4)
(D) (2), (3) and (4)

18. What is the correct sequence of the following stages in manpower acquisition process?
(1) HR need forecast
(2) Assessing existing manpower
(3) Net manpower needed
(4) Organisational objectives and policies
(5) Recruitment process
(A) (4), (1), (2), (3), (5)
(B) (2), (1), (4), (3), (5)
(C) (4), (1), (3), (2), (5)
(D) (1), (2), (3), (5), (4)

19. Robert Hoxie’s theory of trade union movement is based on:
(A) Communist perspective
(B) Socialist perspective
(C) Concept of trusteeship
(D) Capitalist perspective

20. Organisation confrontation is also known as……………………………
(A) Confrontation arrangement
(B) Confrontation discussion
(C) Confrontation conference
(D) Confrontation meeting

Retail Management Project Coordinator
Facilities Management Program Management
Financial Management Managers
Incident Management Product Management
Stakeholder Management Team Leader
Marketing Management Managerial Round
People Management Project Management
Operation Management Managers
Sales Management

21. In managing International compensation, the approach in which package compensation equalizes cost between home country and International employee is called……………………
(A) Headquarters approach
(B) Cash flow approach
(C) Balance-sheet approach
(D) Income statement approach

22. Affective competence, intellectual competence and action oriented competence as components of key competencies of managers was proposed by:
(A) Rabi Kanungo and Sahi B. Mishra
(B) Robert Katz
(C) Henry Mintzberg
(D) Thomas Durand

23. Which one of the following does not constitute to be a direct source of industrial jurisprudence in India?
(A) The Constitution of India
(B) Legislative Enactments
(C) Judicial Decisions
(D) International Obligations

24. Recording expenses and revenues in the same period in which they occur is related to…………………
(A) Objectivity principle
(B) Matching principle
(C) Historical cost principle
(D) Industry practices principle

25. Interest received on long-term investments is shown under…………..
(A) Operating activities
(B) Financing activities
(C) Investing activities
(D) Interesting activities

26. Fixed cost per unit increases when:
(A) Production increases
(B) Production decreases
(C) Variable cost per unit decreases
(D) Prime cost per unit decreases

27. What will be the amount of profit if fixed cost is Rs. 20,000, sales is Rs. 1,60,000 and P/V ratio is 25%?
(A) Rs. 40,000
(B) Rs. 20,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 1,40,000

28. Determine contribution if fixed cost is Rs. 50,000 and loss is Rs. 20,000:
(A) Rs. 70,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 20,000

29. ………………are costs borne by shareholders to prevent/minimise agency problems as to contribute to maximise owner’s wealth.
(A) Fixed costs
(B) Direct costs
(C) Agency costs
(D) Variable costs

30. According to traditional approach, what is the effect of increase in degree of leverage on the valuation of the firm?
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Increases first and then decreases

31. …………………….is a method of budgeting in which all expenses must be justified and approved for each new period.
(A) Flexible budgeting
(B) Mix budgeting
(C) Zero-based budgeting
(D) Activity-based budgeting

32. …………………..variance occurs when workers are not able to do the work due to some reason during the hours for which they are paid.
(A) Labour efficiency
(B) Labour mix
(C) Labour yield
(D) Idle time

33. If a firm has a DOL of 5 at Q units, this tells us that:
(A) If sales rise by 5%, EBIT will rise by 5%
(B) If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 1%
(C) If sales rise by 5%, EBIT will fall by 25%
(D) If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 5%

34. Quarterly compounding refers to an arrangement where interest is paid every……………………….
(A) Four months
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) Twelve months

35. An INR 100 FV perpetual bond is currently selling for Rs. 95. The coupon rate is 13.5 percent and the appropriate discount rate is 15 percent. The value of bond is……….
(A) INR 100
(B) INR 95
(C) INR 90
(D) INR 135

36. Which of the following is not a risk evaluation approach?
(A) Risk-adjusted discount rate approach
(B) Certainty-equivalent approach
(C) Decision tree approach
(D) Straight path approach

37. X company earns INR 5 per share and is capitalised at a rate of 10 percent. If the rate of return on investments is 18 percent, the optimum pay out ratio according to Gordon is:
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 100%
(D) 0%

38. According to Walter, the market price per share is maximum in the situation of r < ke when:
(A) D = Zero
(B) D = EPS
(C) D = 50% of EPS
(D) D = 75% of EPS

39. Which of the following is not an economic advantage of merger?
(A) Economies of scale
(B) Synergy
(C) Diversification
(D) Pac-man defence

40. CAPM accounts for………………….
(A) Systematic risk
(B) Unsystematic risk
(C) Frontier risk
(D) Accounting risk

41. Fair value of an option represents …………………………
(A) Intrinsic value of the option only
(B) Time value of the option only
(C) Intrinsic value + Time value of the option
(D) Intrinsic value – Time value of the option

42. Higher net working capital leads to………………….. liquidity and………… profitability.
(A) Higher, higher
(B) Higher, lower
(C) Lower, higher
(D) Lower, lower

43. When the option can be exercised only on the maturity date, it is called:
(A) American option
(B) European option
(C) African option
(D) Greek option

44. The phases of strategic management process are:
(A) Formulation, Implementation, Evaluation
(B) Implementation, Formulation, Evaluation
(C) Evaluation, Implementation, Formulation
(D) Formulation, Evaluation, Implementation

45. Threat of substitutes is one of the forces of:
(A) PEST analysis
(B) SWOT analysis
(C) Porter’s model
(D) BCG matrix

46. SWOT analysis has two internal factors and two external factors. The correct combination is:
(A) Internal: Strengths and Opportunities External: Weaknesses and Threats
(B) Internal: Strengths and Weaknesses External: Opportunities and Threats
(C) Internal: Strengths and Threats External: Weaknesses and Opportunities
(D) Internal: Opportunities and Threats External: Strengths and Weaknesses

47. According to BCG matrix, if relative market share as well as market growth rate both are high, then the product is termed as:
(A) Star
(B) Question mark
(C) Cash cow
(D) Dog

48. GE a cell matrix underlines the strategies for business leaders as follows:
(A) Grow and build
(B) Invest to maintain position
(C) Divestment
(D) Turnaround

49. What is the term used in Ansoff’s matrix for increasing market share with existing markets?
(A) Product development
(B) Market penetration
(C) Diversification
(D) Market development

50. The soft element of Mckinsey’s model is:
(A) Structure
(B) Shared values
(C) Strategy
(D) Systems