General Medicine Sample Question
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Sample Question on General Medicine
1. All are true regarding Guillan Barre syndrome except
(1) Predominant motor ascending paralysis
(2) Residual disability
(3) Areflexia
(4) Albumino cytological dissociation
2. CSF findings in Tubercular meningitis are all except
(1) Increased lymphocytes
(2) Raised protein
(3) Low chloride
(4) High RBC count
3. Familial fatal insomnia is associated with
(1) Prion disease
(2) Alzheimer’s disease
(3) Neoplastic Disease
(4) Cardiovascular disease
4. Most specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is
(1) Total iron binding capacity and percent saturation
(2) Serum ferritin levels
(3) Transferrin saturation
(4) Haemoglobin levels
5. Hemolytic anaemia is characterized by all the following except
(1) Hemosiderinuria
(2) Increased urinary urobilinogen
(3) Hemoglobinuria
(4) Increased plasma haptoglobin levels
6. Cryoprecipitate contain ail except
(1) Factor IX
(2) Factor VIII
(3) Fibrinogen and fibronectin
(4) Von Willibrand Factor
7. All of the following are major complications of massive blood transfusion except
(1) Hypocalcemia
(2) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
(3) Hypothermia
(4) Hypokalemia
8. In Beta thalassemia , there is
(1) Increase in beta chain, increase in alpha chain
(2) Decrease in beta chain, decrease in alpha chain
(3) Increase in beta chain, decrease in alpha chain
(4) Decrease in beta chain, increase in alpha chain
9. Which of the following is not seen in a chronic case of sickle cell anaemia ?
(1) Splenomegaly
(2) Pulmonary hypertension
(3) Cardiomegaly
(4) Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction
10. All the following are causes of pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow except
(1) Paroxysomal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
(2) Fanconi’s anaemia
(3) Hairy cell leukaemia
(4) Myelofibrosis
11. Hair on end appearance in X ray skull is seen in
(1) Thalassemia
(2) Multiple myeloma
(3) Aplastic anaemia
(4) Megaloblastic anaemia
12. All are true regarding paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria except
(1) Reticulocytosis
(2) Decreased serum haptoglobin
(3) Increased neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
(4) Increased urinary urobilinogen
13. In polycythemia vera all the following are seen except
(1) Thrombocytopenia
(2) Peptic ulceration
(3) Deep vein thrombosis
(4) Dimness of vision
14. Which of the following presents as mediastinal enlargement ?
(1) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(2) Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
(3) Acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL)
(4) Diffuse histocytic lymphoma
15. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid Leukaemias (AMI) except
(1) High Leucocyte count > 1,00,000/uL
(2) Age more than 60 years
(3) Involvement of Central Nervous System
(4) Prescence of t (8:21) cytogenetics in M2 type
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma ?
(1) Hypercalcaemia
(2) Reverse ‘albumin globulin ratio (A:G ratio)
(3) Anaemia
(4) Elevated alkaline phosphatase
17. Treatment of choice in Hairy cell leukaemia is
(1) Hydroxyurea
(2) Cladribine
(3) Splenectomy
(4) Vincristine
18. Which one of the following, cell type of lung cancers is most frequently associated with hypercalcaemia ?
(1) Small cell carcinoma
(2) Adeno carcinoma
(3) Squamous cell carcinoma
(4) Large cell undifferentiated po carcinoma
19. All are correctly matched except
(1) Ovarian cancer – CA125
(2) Hepatocellular cancer – Alpha foeto protein
(3) Prostate carcinoma – PSA
(4) Meig’s syndrome — HCG
20. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by
(1) Human herpes virus (HHV)-8
(2) Human herpes virus (HHV)-2
(3) Human herpes virus (HHV)-9
(4) Human herpes virus (HHV)-7
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21. All are premalignant except
(1) Ulcerative colitis
(2) Paget disease of bone
(3) Bronchiectasis
(4) Erythroplakia
22. Cells seen in M5 type of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
(1) Neutrophils
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Monocytes
(4) Eosinophils
23. Blast crisis in Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML) is indicated by all except
(1) Sudden enlargement of spleen
(2) Basophils may increase upto 20%
(3) Blasts >20%
(4) Bleeding tendency due to thrombocytopenia
24. Gene mutations in cystic fibrosis occurs at
(1) Short arm of chromosome 7
(2) Long arm of chromosome 5
(3) Long arm of chromosome 7
(4) Short arm of chromosome 5
25. The following are autosomal dominant disorders except
(1) Huntington’s disease
(2) Marfan’s syndrome
(3) Haemochromatosis
(4) Von Willebrand’s disease
26. Which of the following is autosomal dominant disorder ?
(1) Retinoblastoma
(2) Ataxia Telangiectasia
(3) Fanconi’s syndrome
(4) Cystic fibrosis
27. Most common congenital cardiac defect seen in patients with Noonan’s syndrome
(1) Patent Ductous Arteriosus (PDA)
(2) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
(3) Ebstein Anomaly
(4) Pulmonary stenosis (PS)
28. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with familial polyostosis, precocious puberty and cutaneus pigmentation
(1) Haemochromatosis
(2) Mc Cune Albright syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
29. Which is seen in opioid poisoning ?
(1) Hypertension
(2) Hyperventilation
(3) Slow shallow respiration
(4) Dilated Pupils
30. Aldrich Mee’s lines (leukonychia striata) in the nails are characteristic of which poisoning ?
(1) Cobalt
(2) Arsenic
(3) Mercury
(4) Lead
31. Most specific test for Organophosphorus poisoning is
(1) Plasma cholinesterase level
(2) Red blood cell cholinesterase level
(3) Measurement of serum levels of acetylcholine
(4) Measurement of serum levels of organophosphorus
32. All of the following can cause cyanosis except
(1) Methaemoglobin
(2) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(3) Sulfhaemoglobin
(4) Eisenmenger syndrome
33. Acrodynia or Pink disease is seen in which poisoning ?
(1) Lead
(2) Copper
(3) Arsenic
(4) Mercury
34. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) available in market for adult immunization is
(1) PCV 21
(2) PCV 13
(3) PCV 28
(4) PCV 11
35. All are true about Varicella vaccine used for adult immunization except –
(1) Itis alive attenuated vaccine
(2) Two doses are recommended at an interval of 4-8 weeks
(3) Administered in dose of 0.5ml, intramuscularly in deltoid muscle
(4) Recommended for all human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected patients with CD4 count<200 cells/uL
36. Live attenuated Influenza vaccine (LATV) for adult immunization is administered-
(1) Subcutaneously
(2) Intranasally
(3) Intramuscularly
(4) Intravenously
37. Central clock of Circadian rhythm of human body is
(1) Suprachiasmatic nucleus in hypothalamus
(2) Caudate nucleus in basal ganglia
(3) Nucleus ambiguus in medulla
(4) Mesencephalic nucleus in midbrain
38. Important Circadian central Clock proteins are all except
(1) CLOCK
(2) BMALI
(3) PER
(4) TFR
39. Physiological alterations produced by Sahaja Yoga Meditation are all except-
(1) Decreased sympathetic activity
(2) Increased urinary Vanillylmandelic acid (U-VMA)
(3) Increased serum nitrite levels
(4) Increased heart rate variability (HRV)
40. DASH diet is recommended for patients with
(1) Diabetes
(2) Hypertension
(3) Alcoholic Liver disease
(4) End stage Renal disease
41. Best imaging modality to identify atherosclerotic plaque with fibrous cap thickness of 65 micron or less
(1) Intravascular Ultrasound (IVUS)
(2) Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
(3) Computed Tomography (CT) Coronary Angiography
(4) Tissue Doppler Echocardiography (TDI)
42. Telomere mediated disease manifests in adults as
(1) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
(2) Liver cirrhosis
(3) Bone marrow failure
(4) All the above
43. Artificial Intelligence means
(1) Machine learning
(2) Medical tourism
(3) Genome editing
(4) Yoga and meditation
44. Sensitivity is calculated by formula
(1) True positive / True positive + False negative
(2) False positive / False positive + True negative
(3) True negative / True negative + False positive
(4) False negative / False negative + True positive
45. All are inhibitors of CYP3A except
(1) Amiodarone
(2) Clarithromycin
(3) Ketoconazole
(4) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
46. Chronic Care Model (CCM) of Health system includes all except
(1) Delivery system design
(2) Decision support
(3) Clinical information systems
(4) None of the above
47. Health Information Technology (HIT) involves
(1) Barcode Medication Administration (BCMA)
(2) Smart drug delivery pumps
(3) Telemedicine
(4) All the above
48. Life style diseases include
(1) Atherosclerosis
(2) Takayasu arteritis
(3) Pulmonary embolism
(4) Hypothyroidism
49. Ethical issues in clinical medicine are all except
(1) Informed consent
(2) Patient’s confidentiality
(3) Transmission of diseases
(4) None of the above
50. Consequences of polypharmacy all except
(1) Increased frailty and sarcopenia
(2) Nutrition deficit
(3) Decreased mortality
(4) Urine incontinence
51. Withholding or withdrawing life sustaining treatment from a patient to let him or her die is
(1) Passive euthanasia
(2) Active euthanasia
(3) Physician assisted suicide
(4) None of the above
52. High first pass metabolism is seen in which drug
(1) Tolbutamide
(2) Phenobarbitone
(3) Lidocaine
(4) Isosorbide mononitrate
53. Process of rational prescribing of drugs require
(1) Establish first diagnosis (at least provisional)
(2) Define therapeutic problem and goals
(3) Select optimal drug route, dose and duration of treatment depending on patient’s condition.
(4) All the above
54. Reverse transcriptase sequence in HIV is best described as
(1) RNA-DNA-RNA
(2) DNA-RNA
(3) DNA-RNA-DNA
(4) RNA-DNA
55. Giant cell (Hecht’s) pneumonia is due to
(1) Measles
(2) Cytomegalovirus
(3) Toxoplasmosis
(4) Tuberculosis
56. Leonine facies is seen in which disease
(1) Syphilis
(2) Lepromatous Leprosy
(3) Diphtheria
(4) Trypanosomiasis
57. Helicobacter Pylori causes
(1) Chronic atrophic gastritis
(2) Lymphomatoid gastritis
(3) Basophilic gastritis
(4) Eosinophilic gastritis
58. Commonest site for extrapulmonary Tuberculosis
(1) Menninges
(2) Lymphnode
(3) Intestine
(4) Kidney
59. Leptospirosis (Well’s disease) includes all except
(1) Jaundice
(2) Stroke
(3) Renal failure
(4) Haemorrhagic diathesis
60. Plasmodium Falciparum does not present with
(1) Hypoglycaemia
(2) Fever
(3) Hypotension
(4) Hyperglycaemia
