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Dental Quiz Mock Test Papers
1. Which two molars can be considered to be five cusped teeth?
(A) Maxillary first and second
(B) Mandibular first and second
(C) Maxillary and Mandibular first
(D) Maxillary and Mandibular second
2. Which of the following oral muscles is NOT innervated by CNV ?
(C) Medial Pterygoid
(D) Lateral Pterygoid
3. In a distal view of a permanent maxillary first molar, how many roots should be visible?
4. Which incisor commonly exhibits the most variety in anatomy in both crown form and root form?
(A) Maxillary central
(B) Maxillary lateral
(C) Mandibular central
(D) Mandibular lateral
5. The deepest groove on the occlusal surface of the maxillary 1st molar is :
6. The shape of the pulp chamber in cross-section cut at the cervical line in the Maxillary canine is :
(A) Oval (flattened mesio-distally)
(B) Oval (flattened bucco-lingually)
(D) Figure eight
7. Which ligament of the temporomandibular joint originates from a thin, pointed extension of the temporal bone ?
8. Which premolar is considered to be most molar-like in form ?
(A) Maxillary first
(B) Maxillary second
(C) Mandibular first
(D) Mandibular second
9. At the age of nine years, the mandibular permanent first molar has its distal contact with which of the following teeth?
(A) First premolar
(B) No distal contact
(C) Second decidous molar
(D) None of the above
10. Which of the following types of dentin is continuously produced throughout life ?
(A) Interglobular dentin
(B) Intertubular dentin
(C) Intratubular dentin
(D) Mantle dentin
11. Salivary gland stone most commonly involves :
(A) Submandibular gland
(B) Parotid gland
(C) Sublingual gland
(D) Lingual gland
12. Break up time (BUT) test is done in :
(A) Sjogren syndrome
(B) Multiple sclerosis
(D) Myasthenia gravis
13. The microorganism most commonly cultured from a chronic bilateral ulcer at the corner of mouth :
14. A patient is having severe mycotic infection diabetic mellitus and cellulitis is suffering with :
15. Tubular adenoma occurs on :
(A) Upper lip
(C) Lower lip
16. Clavicle is absent in :
(C) Fibrous dysplasla
17. The cyst located at the junction of medial nasal process, lateral nasal process and maxillary process is :
(A) Globulomaxillary cyst
(B) Median palatine cyst
(C) Nasopalatine cyst
(D) Nasoalveolar cyst
18. Absence of pulp chamber is seen in :
(C) Amelogenesis imperfect
(D) Freys syndrome
19. Facial edema, chelitisgranulomatosa and a fissured tongue characterize which of the following syndrome ?
(C) Treacher Collins
(D) Guerinbarreian syndrome
20. Basal layer in primordial cyst is arranged in the form of:
(A) Tennis racket
21. Squamous papilloma is induced by :
22. Which of the following has been implicated due to sunlight?
(A) Basal cell carcinoma
(C) Junctional nevus
23. Malignant tumour of skeletal muscle :
24. Starry sky appearance is seen in :
(A) Follicular reticulosis
(B) Inflammatory disease
(C) Pagets disease
(D) Burkitt’s lymphoma
25. Onion skin appearance is radiologically seen in :
(A) Fibrous dysplasia
(C) Ewing’s sarcoma
26. Which of the following is the least radiosensitive ?
(B) Lymph node
(C) Salivary gland
27. Mitotic delay is longer in :
(A) Smaller dose
(B) Moderate dose
(C) Larger dose
(D) Both (A) and (B)
28. Mirror image of bone loss pattern is seen in :
(A) Localized Juvenile Periodontitis
(B) Rapidly Progressing Periodontitis
(C) Pre—pubertal Periodontitis
(D) Adult Periodontitisl
29. Which of the following is useful to detect the movement of tongue ?
30. The size of the actual focal spot is :
(A) 1 * 3
(B) 1 * 1
(C) 1 * 4
(D) 1 * 2
31. Most important factor in attaining painless local analgesia by :
(B) Slow injection
(C) Rapid injection
(D) Local infiltration
32. Treatment given for Celiac disease
(A) Life Long Gluten Free Diet
(B) Life Long Sucrose Free Diet
(C) Life Long Lactose Free Diet
(D) Life Long Galactose Free Diet
33. Treatment for Lateral Luxation :
(A) Treated Immediately
(C) Treatment not required
34. Radiographic features for type II dentin dysplasia :
(A) Pulp Stone
(B) Internal Resorption
(C) External Resorption
(D) Rootless Teeth
35. Early childhood caries is otherwise called
(A) Bottle mouth caries
(B) Nursing bottle caries
(C) Rapid caries
(D) Both (A) and (B)
36. Best transport media for Avulsed Tooth:
(C) Coconut Water
(D) Retainedin Buccal Vestibule
37. Spheno occipital synchondrosis growth ends in :
(A) 15 yrs in boys, 20 yrs in girls
(B) 20 yrs in boys, 15 yrs in girls
(C) 10 yrs in boys, 15 yrs in girls
(D) 15 yrs in boys, 10 yrs in girls
38. At birth cranial growth reaches about :
39. Anterior fontanelle closes at the age of :
(A) 18 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 10 years
40. Safety tolureted dose for fluoride :
(A) 1 mg I kg body wt.
(B) 5 mg / kg body wt.
(C) 32-64 mg I kg body wt.
(D) 10 mg I kg body wt.
41. In scammons growth curve the lymphoid tissue in early adulthood reaches:
42. Adams clasp has :
(A) Three arrow heads
(B) Two arrow heads
(C) Four bridges
(D) One arrow head
43. Frankles 1A appliance is used in :
(A) Class 2 divi 1
(B) Class 2 divi 2
(C) Class 3
(D) Class 1
44. In oephalostast the distance between the patient and the X-ray tube is 1
(A) 6 feet
(B) 7 feet
(C) 5 feet
(D) 4 feet
45. In Andrews keys of occlusion the curve of see should not exceed :
(A) 1.5 mm
(B) 1.6 mm
(C) 1.7 mm
(D) 1.8 mm
46. Ugly ducking stage occurs during eruption of:
47. Cephalocaudal gradient is used to assess the growth of :
(C) Whole body
48. Skeletal maturity can be assessed by:
(A) Hand wrist X-ray
(B) Femur X-ray
(C) Scapula X-ray
(D) Mandible X-ray
49. Functional growth matrix theory was given by:
(A) Melvin Moss
50. The optimum pressure required for tooth movement is _____ mg/sq.cm.