Endocrinology Quiz

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Quiz on Endocrinology

1. SIADH is seen in all EXCEPT :-
(1) Interstitial nephritis
(2) Lung abscess
(3) Vinca alkaloids
(4) Bronchial asthma

2. All can cause SIADH EXCEPT :-
(1) AIDS
(2) Viral Pneumonia
(3) Positive pressure ventilation
(4) Testicular Tumor

3. The following can be used for treatment of hyponatremia EXCEPT :-
(1) Urea
(2) Losartan
(3) Conivaptin
(4) Furosemide with NaCl

4. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is seen in all EXCEPT :-
(1) Rickets
(2) Osteomalacia
(3) Renal failure
(4) Osteoporosis

5. Ruger Jersey spine is seen in :-
(1) Multiple myeloma
(2) TB-Spine
(3) CRF
(4) Ankylosing spondylitis

6. Which of the following is true about pseudohypoparathyroidism type 1.
(1) Decreased formation of cAMP is observed.
(2) Caused by gain of function inherited mutation in Gs alfa subunit.
(3) Decreased formation of inositol triphosphate is observed.
(4) Decreased formation of cGMP is observed.

7. All of the following are used to treat acute hypercalcaemia EXCEPT :-
(1) Hydration with saline
(2) Gallium nitrate
(3) Calcitonin
(4) Bisphosphonate

8. Al of the following are seen in rickets EXCEPT :-
(1) Bow legs
(2) Pot belly
(3) Gunstock deformity
(4) Cranio-tabes

9. The most common manifestation of osteoporosis is :-
(1) Compression fracture of spine
(2) Asymptomatic detected incidentally by low calcium levels
(3) Bowing of legs
(4) Loss of weight

10. Pigeon breast deformity is seen in :-
(1) Rickets
(2) Osteoporosis
(3) Pagets disease
(4) Primary hyperparathyroidism

11. Indication for surgery in primary hyperparathyroidism includes :-
(1) Bone mineral density low (T score < -1.5)
(2) S. Calcium > 1 mg/dL above upper normal limit
(3) Urinary calcium < 400 mg/day
(4) Age above 50 years

12. Most abundant protein in bone matrix is :-
(1) Type 2 collagen
(2) Type 1 collagen
(3) Type 4 collagen
(4) Type 3 collagen

13. Which of the following medical conditions is not associated with hypercalcaemia ?
(1) Hyperparathyroidism
(2) William’s syndrome
(3) Sarcoidosis
(4) Hypothyroidism

14. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Hypercalcaemia ?
(1) Diarrhoea
(2) Lethargy
(3) Polyuria
(4) Polydipsia

15. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of severe hypercalcaemia ?
(1) Volume Repletion
(2) Denosumab
(3) Thiazide diuretics
(4) Gluco corticoids

16. All of the following genes have been found to be useful in the development of parathyroid glands :-
(1) GCMB
(2) GMI4
(3) SOX3
(4) GATA 3

17. Which of the following is not an indication for surgery in primary hyperparathyroidism ?
(1) Urinary calcium > 300 mg/day plus other urinary biochemical indices of stone risk.
(2) History of fragility fracture
(3) Young age < 50 years
(4) Creatinine clearance < 60 ml/min and presence of renal stones.

18. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of growth hormone insensitivity ?
(1) Infertility
(2) Birth length may be slightly decreased
(3) Birth weight near normal
(4) Frontal bossing

19. Which of the following is not a feature of HESX1 maturation ?
(1) Delayed puberty
(2) Septo-optic-dysplasia may be seen
(3) Midline forebrain abnormalities
(4) Ectopic anterior pituitary

20. Which of the following syndromes is not associated with small for gestational age births ?
(1) Russell Silver syndrome
(2) Tietze syndrome
(3) Rabinstein-Taybi syndrome
(4) Sickle syndrome

21. The advantages of assaying IGBP3 concentration for screening for growth failure are all except :
(1) IGFBP3 levels are constant throughout the day.
(2) The immunoassay of IGFBP-3 is technically simple and does not require separation of the binding protein from IGF peptides.
(3) IGF BP 3. levels are GH independent.
(4) Serum IGF BP 3 levels are less dependent on neutrino than IGF-I.

22. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of growth hormone therapy ?
(1) Osteochondrodysplasias
(2) Scoliosis
(3) Slipped capital femoral epiphyses
(4) Pseudotumor cerebri

23. All are side effects seen with oxandrolone therapy EXCEPT :-
(1) Hepatic dysfunctions
(2) Increase in serum LDL levels
(3) Clitorimegaly
(4) Delayed breast development

24. Dose of clonidine to provoke GH secretion is :-
(1) 0.5 mg/kg
(2) 0.15 mg/kg
(3) 0.15 mg/m2
(4) 0.5 mg/m2

25. All of the following are causes of postnatal overgrowth leading to adult tall stature except :-
(1) Hyperthyroidism
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Testicular feminization
(4) X44 Karyotype

26. Mutation of which gene is the most common cause of combined pituitary hormone deficiency ?
(1) LHX3
(2) PITX2
(3) HESX 1
(4) PROP 1

27. Rieger syndrome occurs due to mutation of :-
(1) LHX3
(2) PITX2
(3) HESX1
(4) PROP 1

28. Which of the following is not a feature of Sheehan’s syndrome ?
(1) Hyperprolactinaemia
(2) Hypoglycemia
(3) Hyponatremia
(4) Weight loss

29. Which of the following statement regarding Lymphocytic Hypophysitis is false ?
(1) Can occur after menopause
(2) 15% cases are reported in males
(3) Empty sella syndrome is common outcome
(4) Diabetes insipidus is seen in 40% case

30. Most common endocrine deficit encountered in ipilimumab-Induced hypophysitis is :-
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Diabetes Insipidus
(3) Secondary adrenal insufficiency
(4) Hypo-prolactinemia

31. Hypertension in congenital 17-α hydroxylase deficiency is due to elevated levels of :-
(1) Cortisol
(2) 11-Deoxycorticosterone
(3) 17-hydroxypregnanediol
(4) 17 hydroxyprogesterone

32. The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity sundrome is :-
(1) 45 XO
(2) 46 XX
(3) 46 XY
(4) XXY

33. A baby girl presents with bilateral inguinal masses, thought to be hernias but arc found to be testes. Which Karyotype do you expect ?
(1) 46 XY
(2) 46XY
(3) 47 XXY
(4) 47XYY

34. A 21 year old woman, with height of 163 cms presents with primary amenorrhea. She has well developed breasts with no axillary or pubic hair and no hirsutism. Most likely clinical diagnosis is :-
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(2) Stein-Leventhal syndrome
(3) Premature ovarian failure
(4) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

35. Which of the following is seen with hypogonadotropic hydogonadism ?
(1) Viral orchitis
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Kallman syndrome
(4) Noonan syndrome

36. Gonadectomy is a clinically advised procedure in the treatment of :-
(1) Testicular feminization syndrome
(2) Kallmann syndrome
(3) Hemochromatosis
(4) Sexual precocity

37. A patient presents with primary | amenorrhea with a hypothalamic deficit. The most likely syndrome is :-
(1) Asherman syndrome
(2) Kallmann syndrome
(3) Stein Leventhal syndrome
(4) Sheehan’s syndrome

38. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 11 β hydroxylase deficiency presents with all of the following symptoms EXCEPT :-
(1) Hypokalemia
(2) Hypertension
(3) Virilization
(4) Metabolic acidosis

39. Which among the following types of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency ?
(1) Salt wasting type
(2) Simple viriling type
(3) Non classic type
(4) All of above

40. Which of the following is not a common adverse effect of selective phosphodiesterase inhibitors ?
(1) Skin rash
(2) Dyspepsia
(3) Abnormal vision
(4) Hearing problems

41. A child presents with antimongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, short stature and undescended testes. The likely diagnosis is :-
(1) Hypoparathyroidism
(2) Noonan syndrome
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(4) X44 sex chromosome

42. Which of the following is not a feature seen in Turner’s syndrome ?
(1) Cubitus valgus
(2) Increased risk for breast tumors
(3) Increased risk for colon cancer
(4) Increased risk for IBD

43. Which of the following is not characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome ?
(1) Occurs due to meiotic nondisjunction of sex chromosome during gametogenesis.
(2) TESE & ICSI can lead to successful pregnancy for =50% men with classic Klinefelter syndrome.
(3) Occurs during spermatogenesis in 60% of patients and during Oogenesis in 40% of patients.
(4) There is increased risk of varicose veins in these patients.

44. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome ?
(1) Decrease in both LH & testosterone
(2) Most common cancer associated with Klinefelter syndrome is prostate cancer.
(3) There is atrophy of Leydig cells.
(4) It is frequently associated with MVP.

45. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Turners syndrome :-
(1) Most common CVS defect is in tricuspid valve.
(2) Only monosomy is compatible with life.
(3) These patients have lower IQ than normal.
(4) Most common cause of death is due to breast cancer.