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Old Question Papers on Community Medicine
1. Taking the definition of blindness as visual acuity less than 3/60 in the better eye, the number of blind persons per 100,000 population in India is estimated to be :
(1) 500
(2) 700
(3) 1000
(4) 1500
2. Disease not included in Vision 2020, India is :
(1) Cataract
(2) Glaucoma
(3) Diabetic retinopathy
(4) Optic atrophy
3. Current cancer patients in India reported annually :
(1) 0.5 million
(2) 1 million
(3) 5 millions
(4) 10 millions
4. An ‘epidemic of Hepatitis A is an example of
(1) Common source, single exposure epidemic
(2) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic
(3) Propagated epidemic
(4) Slow epidemic
5. Tip of iceberg phenomenon 15 most appropriately represented by :
(1) Malaria
(2) Measles
(3) PEM
(4) Rabies
6. Absolute contraindication for DPT vaccine is
(1) Cold cough fever
(2) Progressive neurological disease
(3) Thrombocytopenia
(4) Subacutemonopotic neuritis
7. At state or regional level, the duration of vaccine storage is
(1) 5 months
(2) 4 months
(3) 2 months
(4) 3 months
8. BCG vaccine program was launched in India
(1) 1949
(2) 1951
(3) 1970
(4) 1971
9. For trachoma SAFE strategy includes all of the following EXCEPT :
(1) Screening
(2) Antibiotics
(3) Face washing
(4) Environmental improvement
10. Rash starting peripherally is a feature of :
(1) Epidemic types
(2) Endemic typhus
(3) Scrub typhus
(4) Indian tick typhus
11. False about Leishmaniasis is :
(1) Co-infection with AIDS is now emerging
(2) Indian Leishmaniasis is a non- zoonotic infection with man as the sole reservoir
(3) Aldehyde Test of Napier is a good test for diagnosis
(4) There are no drugs for personal prophylaxis
12. In the grading of Trachoma, Trachomatous Inflammation-follicules is defined as the presence of :
(1) Five or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
(2) Three or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
(3) Five or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
(4) Three or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
13. All are used in treatment of Visceral Leishmaniasis except :
(1) Sitamaquine
(2) Paramomycin
(3) Hydroxychloroquine
(4) Miltefosine
14. Mode of transmission of Q fever ?
(1) Ticks
(2) Mites
(3) Aerosols
(4) Mosquito
15. In multi bacillary leprosy, bacterial index is more than :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 10
16. Generation time for leprosy bacillus is :
(1) 8-10 days
(2) 10-12 days
(3) 12-15 days
(4) 15-20 days
17. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by :
(1) Haemophilus ducreyi
(2) Calymmotabacterium granulomatis
(3) Treponema palliduim
(4) Chlamydia trachomatis
18. All of the following statements are true for the viralgenome in HIV, Except :
(1) They are diploid
(2) They consist of DNA dependent DNA polymerase activity
(3) They consist of three major genes-gag, pol and env characteristic of all retroviruses
(4) They are most complex of human retroviruses
19. Antiretroviral prophylaxis decrease the chance of transmission of HIV to fetus during pregnancy by
(1) 35%
(2) 45%
(3) 50%
(4) 65%
20. Epidemic caused by type A arbovirus in India is :
(1) Chikungunya
(2) KFD
(3) Yellow Fever
(4) Dengue
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21. Who invented APGAR score ?
(1) Helen May (Clarke)
(2) Charles Emery Apgar
(3) Virginia Apgar
(4) Laurence Apgar
22. Kangaroo position of kangaroo mother care includes all except
(1) Baby in vertical position
(2) Baby chest in direct skin contact with mother
(3) Baby between the breast of the mother
(4) Baby in horizontal position
23. RHIME is a method for estimation
(1) Neonatal mortality rate
(2) Infant mortality rate
(3) Maternal mortality rate
(4) Prenatal mortality rate
24. Child rights are guaranteed in which article of the constitution :
(1) Article 24
(2) Article 28
(3) Article 35
(4) Article 42
25. National Health Policy was approved by the parliament in the year
(1) 1984
(2) 1981
(3) 1977
(4) 1983
26. Shantilal Shah Committee was set up for
(1) Minimum — addition — staff for primary health centers for malaria and smallpox
(2) Prevention of National malaria eradication programme
(3) Legalisation of Abortion
(4) Medical Education of India
27. All are true for gases implicated in decompression sickness except
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Nitrogen+ Oxygen + Helium
(3) Oxygen + Helium
(4) Carbon monoxide
28. Herd immunity threshold for poliomyelitis is
(1) 83-84%
(2) 60-70%
(3) 80-86%
(4) 83-85%
29. For study of vaccine efficiency which of the following is not appropriate
(1) Cohort Study
(2) Household cohort study
(3) Cluster sampling
(4) Case-control study
30. Which of the immunoglobulin is concentrated in submucous tissue
(1) IgE
(2) IgM
(3) IgG
(4) IgA
31. Children under 2 year of age group do not respond to
(1) Polysaccharide based vaccine
(2) Recombinant protein vaccine
(3) Conjugated vaccine
(4) Combination vaccine
32. Isolation period, false is :
(1) Chicken pox — 6 days after onset of rash
(2) Herpes zoster — 6 days after onset of rash
(3) Measles — up to 3 days after onset of rash
(4) German measles — 10 days after onset of rash
33. Environmental Manipulation which enable genes to express themselves readily is known as :
(1) Positive eugenics
(2) Negative eugenics
(3) Euthenics
(4) Genetic Counselling
34. NCOP designates
(1) National Committee for Older Persons
(2) National Council for Older Persons
(3) National Commission for Older Persons
(4) National Cabinet for Older Persons
35. A 6 months pregnant lady comes for antenatal checkup for the first time. Her baseline investigation and screening for HBSAG and Anti HCV was done. On screening she was found to have HBSAG. What you suggest for this lady ?
(1) Active and passive immunization
(2) Passive immunization
(3) Anti-viral therapy
(4) Advice for active and passive immunization of the baby at birth.
36. Average number of mites found on the body in a person suffering from scabies is :
(1) 1-2
(2) 5-10
(3) 10-15
(4) 15-20
37. The distance from airport or seaport can be kept free from Aedes mosquito is
(1) 400m
(2) 500m
(3) 1km
(4) 100m
38. Concept of Hierarchy of Human needs is given by
(1) Abraham Maslow
(2) Godman Maslow
(3) Ann Maslow
(4) Ellen Maslow
39. Mission Parivar Vikas was launched with the goal
(1) To reduce total fertility rate of 2.1 by the year 2025
(2) To reduce total fertility rate of 2.2 by the year 2025
(3) To reduce the IMR of <25 by the year 2030
(4) To reduce the IMR of <25 by the year 2025
40. National wide family planning programme was started in
(1) 1948
(2) 1949
(3) 1953
(4) 1952
41. Grafenberg’s ring is a
(1) First generation IUD
(2) Second generation IUD
(3) Third generation IUD
(4) Injectable contraceptive
42. Tubal block constitutes what proportion of female infertility ?
(1) 5-7%
(2) 15-20%
(3) 30-35%
(4) 90-05%
43. The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except :
(1) To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015
(2) To reduce the Infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births
(3) To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate to 100 per 100,000 live births
(4) 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages and pregnancies
44. Failure rate of Pomeroy’s technique of sterilization ?
(1) 0.1-0.5%
(2) 0.5-1.0%
(3) 1-2%
(4) 5-10%
45. According to “Factory Act, 1948” maximum permissible working hours per week are :
(1) 48
(2) 60
(3) 72
(4) 54
46. Cancer of scrotum in chimney sweeps was first seen by
(1) Percival Pott
(2) Donald Hunter
(3) Sarah Pott
(4) Lobo Mendonca
47. Respirable dust, responsible for pneumoconiosis, has a size limit of :
(1) <1 micron
(2) <5 micron
(3) <10 micron
(4) <100 micron
48. The Indian Factories Act dates back to
(1) 1948
(2) 1958
(3) 1881
(4) 1891
49. All are features of siderosis except
(1) Itis caused by iron dense.
(2) Foundry workers and welders are affected.
(3) No tissue reaction, no lung impairment
(4) Mottling in lung
50. Snow storm appearance of lung is seen in
(1) COVID-19
(2) Silicosis
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Bagassosis