Medical Gastroenterology Quiz

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Quiz on Medical Gastroenterology

1. Delayed Centripetal Contrast Enhancement on CECT abdomen is seen with
(1) Hemangioma liver
(2) HCC
(3) Metastasis
(4) Hepatic cyst

2. Best investigation to diagnose hydatid cyst in liver is
(1) USG Whole abdomen
(2) CECT whole abdomen
(3) MRI
(4) MRCP

3. ‘Chain of lake appearance’ is seen in
(1) Acute pancreatitis
(2) Chronic pancreatitis
(3) Ca head of pancreas
(4) Traumatic pancreatitis

4. ‘Sunburst’ appearance on CECT of pancreas is seen in
(1) Acute pancreatitis
(2) Chronic pancreatitis
(3) Serous cystadenoma of pancreas
(4) Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

5. Contraindication for TIPS are all except
(1) Pulmonary artery hypertension
(2) Polycystic liver
(3) Recurrent hepatic encephalopathy
(4) MELD score >12

6. Which embolic material should be avoided in trans catheter embolization ?
(1) Stainless steel coils
(2) Gelfoam powder
(3) Polyvinyl alcohol] particle
(4) Trisacryl gelatin micro sphere

7. On Arteriogram how much bleeding rate can be detected ?
(1) 0.2 ml per minute
(2) 0.5 ml per minute
(3) 0.7 ml per minute
(4) 0.9 ml per minute

8. In photodynamic therapy photo sensitizer can be activated by which light ?
(1) Blue
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) Yellow

9. True about 2 octyl cyno acrylate are all except
(1) Has longer ester chain linked to the main compound
(2) Injected undiluted
(3) Less volume required in comparison n butyl 2 cyno acrylate
(4) Injection catheter is primed with normal saline

10. For diagnosis of IPMN (Intra Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm) which Investigation is better ?
(1) USG whole abdomen
(2) CECT
(3) ERCP
(4) MRCP

11. Accuracy of MRCP in diagnosis of pancreatic divisum is
(1) 75%
(2) 85%
(3) 95%
(4) 100%

12. Length of Sonde enteroscope is
(1) 160 Centimetres
(2) 200 Centimetres
(3) 270 Centimetres
(4) 300 Centimetres

13. Advantage of single balloon enteroscope over double balloon enteroscope is :
(1) High image resolution
(2) Improve insertability
(3) Support for NBI
(4) All of the above

14. For subepethelial lesions by EUS which statement is false ?
(1) Leiomyoma 2nd or 4th layer, hypoechoic
(2) Lipoma-hypocchoic
(3) GIST from 4th layer and hypoechoic
(4) Anechoic, round or oval (3 or 5 layers walls suggest duplication cyst)

(1) Ductal adenocarcinoma is hypoenhancing in all phases.
(2) Neuroendocrine tumors are hyperenhancing masses.
(3) Focal mass-forming pancreatitis and autoimmune pancreatitis have stronger enhancement.
(4) Septal enhancement is not helpful in diagnosis of mucinous neoplasm.

15. True about celiac ganglia injection is
(1) Bupivacaine is injected first, followed by alcohol for neurolysis
(2) Bupivacaine is injected first, followed by triamcinolone for block.
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) 25 g EUS needle is usually used

16. Features of [IPMN (Intra Ductal Pappilary Mucinous Neoplasm) on EUS are all except
(1) Dilated MPD or side branches
(2) Mural nodules
(3) High viscocity fluid
(4) Bland glycogen positive cuboidal cells

17. Difference between Serous (SCA) and Mucinous Cystic Neoplasm (MCN) are all except.
(1) MCN Iess common in body and tail
(2) Multiple small cysts in SCA and septations, papillary projections in MCN.
(3) High CEA in MCN and low CEA in SCA.
(4) Cyst fluid glucose may be high in MCN.

18. In PILICAM oesophagus images are captured at the rate of
(1) 4 frames per second
(2) 14 frames per second
(3) 20 frames per second
(4) 24 frames per second

19. In EUS guided FNAC, advancement of needle dependent on
(1) Wall parameter
(2) Lesion parameter
(3) Vessel parameter
(4) Ail of the above

20. Radial Echoendoscope have the ability to switch frequency from
(1) 5-20 megahertz
(2) 20-30 megahertz
(3) 30-40 megahertz
(4) more than 40 megahertz,

21. What is symbiont ?
(1) Any pathological organism
(2) Live micro organism provides health benefits
(3) Non digestible compound
(4) Any organism participating in mutually beneficial relationship

22. Recurrence rate after intestinal microbial transplant in refractory clostridium difficile infection is
(1) 5-6%
(2) 8-10%
(3) 12-15%
(4) 15-20%

23. Response rate of Intestinal Microbial Transplant (IMT) in refractory clostridium difficile infection is
(1) 30-40%
(2) 50-60%
(3) 60-75%
(4) 80-95%

24. Clinical features of Prader will syndrome are all except
(1) Obesity
(2) Mental retardation
(3) Genital hypoplasia
(4) Retinitis pigmentosa

25. In which endoscopic balloon for treatment of obesity gas is filled
(1) Orbera gastric balloon
(2) Reshape duo
(3) Spatz balloon
(4) Obalon balloon

26. Endoscopic sleeve gastrectomy started from which area of stomach ?
(1) Anterior wall of distal stomach
(2) Posterior wall of distal stomach
(3) Anterior — wall of proximal stomach
(4) Posterior wall of distal stomach

27. Name of endoscopic aspiration therapy device for obesity is
(1) King’s Assist
(2) Aspire Assist
(3) Austin Assist
(4) Appolo Assist

28. Inhibitors of food intake are all except
(1) GLP-I
(2) Peptide YY
(3) Panc. Polypeptide
(4) Neuropeptide Y

29. Lorcaserin is
(1) Serotonin 2c receptor agonist
(2) GLP analogue
(3) Dopamine reuptake inhibitor
(4) Nor epinephrine reuptake inhibitor

30. POEM treatment of achalasia cardia false is
(1) Abnormal esophageal acid exposure occurs at equal rates after either anterior or posterior approach.
(2) Post-POEM GER related to gastric myotomy.
(3) Theoretically decreased risk of bleeding in posterior approach.
(4) Anterior approach is less effective.

31. G-POEM not true is
(1) For refractory gastroparesis
(2) Benefit patients with abdominal pain or bloating
(3) Benefit patients with nausea and vomiting
(4) Pylorus directed therapy

32. In Colon cancer which genctic/epigenetic instability is present ?
(1) Chromosomal instability
(2) Micro satellite instability
(3) CPG island methylator pheno type
(4) All of above

33. According to Catalog of Somatic Mutations in Cancer (COSMIC), approximate how many oncogenes are involved in cancer ?
(1) 60
(2) 70
(3) 80
(4) 90

34. Highest Frequency of K ras oncogene mutation is found in which malignancy ?
(1) Exocrine pancreas
(2) Colon
(3) Small intestine
(4) Stomach

35. PANETH cell reside in which part of crypts in small intestine
(1) Upper part
(2) Middle parts
(3) Base
(4) Diffuse

36. TUFT epithelial cell increased in which infection ?
(1) Bacterial
(2) Fungal
(3) Viral
(4) Parasite

37. At what age of infant oral tolerance can be induced ?
(1) At Birth
(2) 3 months
(3) 6 months
(4) 9 months

38. Example of multipotent stem cell is
(1) Germ cell stem cell
(2) Hemopoetic stem cell
(3) First few cell division of zygote
(4) None of the above

39. Drug used for treatment of refractory adenocarcinoma esophagus is
(1) Adalizumab
(2) Sertolizumab
(3) Pembrolizumab
(4) Pertolizumab

40. Which biopsy protocol is used to take biopsy in barren’s oesophagus ?
(1) Marsh
(2) Dawn
(3) Seattle
(4) Somoyo

41. Endoscopic management of GERD (Gatro Esophageal Reflux Disease) includes all except
(1) Endoscopic Full Thickness Resection (EFTR)
(2) Antireflux Mucosectomy(ARMS)
(3) Trans Oral Incisionless Fundoplication (TIF)
(4) Medigus Ultrasonic Surgical Endostapler (MUSE)

42. Esophageal Peristalsis is best studied in
(1) Recumbent
(2) Upright
(3) Lateral
(4) Head down

43. LES pressure is decreased by
(1) Gastrin
(2) Motilin
(3) VIP
(4) Substance

44. BING criteria can be used to predict the presence or absence of dysplasia in
(1) Colon polyps
(2) Barret’s oesophagus
(3) Gastric polyps
(4) All of the above

45. Which of the following is false about Zenkers diverticulum ?
(1) Cause halitosis
(2) Nasogastric intubation may cause perforation
(3) Occurs below the killians triangle
(4) Treated by cricopharyngeal myotomy

46. Multiple esophageal mucosal rings are characteristic of
(1) Eosinophilic esophagitis
(2) Radiation esophagitis
(3) Corrosive esophagitis
(4) Candidial esophagitis

47. Ty. Wail is uiormab iw. sod relaxation
presstire On csanhaes ah maahOMeTy !
(1) <S mmHg
(2) <10mmilg
(3) <15 mmHg
| (4) <25 mm Hg
48. For diagnosis of Eosinophilic esophagitis, eosinophils per HPF should be
(1) 0-5
(2) 6-9
(3) 10-14
(4) 15 or more

49. Which one is alkali corrosive ?
(1) Toilet cleaner
(2) Battery fluid
(3) Anti rust compound
(4) Drain openers

50. Which one is a contrast stain ?
(1) Lugol’s Iodine
(2) Toluidine blue
(3) Methylene blue
(4) Indigo carmine

51. Which is the most common hiatus hernia type ?
(1) Type 1
(2) Type 2
(3) Type 3
(4) Type 4