HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
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Pharmacology Practice for HESI Exam
1. Which of these is most commonly used as preanesthetic medication?
(1) Atropine
(2) Promethazine
(3) Scopolamine
(4) Glycopyrrolate
2. Sample size calculator required all EXCEPT :
(1) Population error
(2) Confidence level
(3) Population size
(4) Margin of error
3. What statement is correct for Chi square test and McNemer test :-
(1) Chi square test can be used for large tables but McNemer test is used for 2 x 2 table
(2) Chi square test is used for only 2 x 2 tables but McNemer can be used for large tables
(3) Both Chi square — test and McNemer test are used only for large tables
(4) Both Chi square test and MeNemer test are used only for 2 x 2 table
4. A study was done in 3 states to see the ! mean blood pressure in each community. Health workers were assigned and they visited each house in the three communities. Mean blood pressure in each community was found and compared. What type of study design is represented here?
(1) Cohort study
(2) Cross-sectional study
(3) Case control study
(4) Field trial
5. Preferred in animal in screening of antiemetic activity
(1) Monkey
(2) Cat
(3) Chicken
(4) Pigeon
6. What is Normal Value of Ankle Brachial Index?
(1) 0.75-0.9
(2) 0.5-0.75
(3) Less then 0.5
(4) More then 1.3
7. Which one is integrase inhibitor?
(1) Ritonavir
(2) Maraviroc
(3) Raltegravir
(4) Enfuvirtide
8. St. Anthony’s fire refers to poisoning by :
(1) Aflatoxin
(2) Ergot alkaloids
(3) Crotalaria juncea
(4) Spanish fly
9. Methacholine has main agonist action at —
(1) M2
(2) MI
(3) M4
(4) M3
10. Which of the following drug cause Heterochromia iridis?
(1) Latanoprost
(2) Prednisolone
(3) Timolol
(4) Olopatadine
11. What type of inhibition of acetylcholinesterase is caused by organophosphates?
(1) Competitive, reversible
(2) Non-competitive, irreversible
(3) Uncompetitive, reversible
(4) Competitive, irreversible
12. Which of the following is a protease inhibitor?
(1) Saquinavir
(2) Nevirapine
(3) Abacavir
(4) Enfuvirtide
13. Which of the following drugs does not act by increasing insulin secretion?
(1) Exenatide
(2) Sitagliptin
(3) Rosiglitazone
(4) Repaglinide
14. Best antihypertensive drug in pulmonary hypertension-
(1) Bosentan
(2) Amlodipine
(3) Frusemide
(4) Digoxin
15. Diuretic which can be given in mild to moderate hypertension?
(1) Loop diuretic
(2) Thiazide
(3) Osmotic diuretic
(4) Potassium
16. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Zileuton?
(1) Inhibits Lipoxygenase
(2) Inhibit production of IgkE
(3) Inhibits Cycloxygenase
(4) Inhibit mast cell activity
17. A patient with history of coronary artery disease presents with pulse rate of 48/min and BP. Patient has decreased myocardial contractility on Echo. Which of these anaesthetic ; agents is contraindicated?
(1) Ketamine
(2) Dexmedetomidine
(3) Etomidate
(4) Fentanyl
18. Which of the following combinations can be used for day care surgery?
(1) Remifentanyl, Midazolam, Propofol
(2) Fentanyl, Midazolam, Thiopentone Sodium
(3) Morphine, Midazolam, Propofol
(4) Morphine, Diazepam, Ketamine
19. Muscle relaxant that can be used in a patient with high S.Bilirubin of 6.0 and S.Creatinine of 4.5 mg/DI?
(1) Vecuronium
(2) Atracurium
(3) Pancuronium
(4) Mivacurium
20. Which anesthetic agent can cause pain on IV administration?
(1) Thiopentone
(2) Propofol
(3) Ketamine
(4) Midazolam
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21. True about G protein coupled receptors is
(1) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell membrane
(2) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind to each other for G proteins
(3) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
(4) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
22. Therapeutic index is a measure of
(1) Safety
(2) Potency
(3) Efficacy
(4) Selectivity
23. Km of an enzyme is :
(1) Dissociation constant
(2) The normal physiological substrate concentration
(3) The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
(4) Numerically identical for all isozymes that catalyze a given reaction
24. A partial agonist has
(1) High affinity but low intrinsic activity
(2) High affinity but no intrinsic activity
(3) Low affinity but high intrinsic activity
(4) Low affinity and low intrinsic activity
25. Which drug show inactivation by spontaneous molecular rearrangement without the agency of any enzyme?
(1) Aspirin
(2) Anakinra
(3) Atracurium
(4) Anastrozole
26. Agonist is having
(1) Affinity with intrinsic activity is
(2) Affinity with intrinsic activity is 0
(3) Affinity with intrinsic activity is -1
(4) None
27. Latest National List of Essential Medicine for India was published in
(1) 2014
(2) 2015
(3) 2016
(4) 2020
28. Posology is the science of
(1) Poisons
(2) Identification of drugs
(3) Medicine nomenclature
(4) Dose determination
29. Veterinary doctors regularly prescribe injection diclofenac to animals. When those animals die, vultures who are fed on those dead bodies, develop renal failure, and die because of the presence of diclofenac in their bodies entering vultures. This phenomenon is studied under
(1) Pharmacovigilance
(2) Toxicology
(3) Ecopharmacology
(4) Pharmacoepidemiology
30. Shelf life of the drug is the time between
(1) Administration to onset of drug action
(2) Manufacturing of the drug to dispensation of the drug
(3) Dispensing of the drug to consumption of the drug
(4) Manufacturing of the drug to the expiry date of the drug
31. Which of the following drug is used for overactive bladder?
(1) Duloxetine
(2) Darifenacin
(3) Oxybutynin
(4) Flavoxate
32. A patient presented in emergency with tachycardia, hyperthermia, bronchial dilatation and constipation. The person is likely to be suffering from overdose of
(1) Atropine
(2) Organophosphorus compound
(3) Mushroom
(4) Paracetamol
33. A child presented with history of ingestion of some unknown plant and developed mydriasis, tachycardia, dry mouth, warm skin and delirium. Which of the following group of drugs is likely to be responsible for the symptoms of this child?
(1) Anticholinergic
(2) Sympathomimetic
(3) Opioid
(4) Benzodiazepine
34. Which of the following concentrations of epinephrine does not correspond to the respective route of administration?
(1) 1: 10000 for intravenous route
(2) 1: 1000 for inhalational route
(3) 1: 10000 for intramuscular route
(4) 1: 1000 for subcutaneous route
35. A 55 years old female comes to the eye casualty with history of severe eye pain, redness and diminution of vision. On examination, the visual acuity is 460, there is corneal congestion, corneal oedema and a shallow anterior chamber. Which of the following is the best drug of choice?
(1) Homatropine ointment
(2) TV Mannitol.
(3) Ofloxacin eye drops
(4) Betamethasone eye drops
36. Drug used to perform stress ECHO is
(1) Thallium
(2) Dobutamine
(3) Noradrenaline
(4) Adenosine
37. Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is?
(1) Ephedrine
(2) Phenylephrine
(3) Amphetamine
(4) Mephentermine
38. Fenoldopam is used in the management of
(1) Hypertensive emergencies
(2) Congestive heart failure
(3) Migraine prophylaxis
(4) Tachyarrhythmia
39. Drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is
(1) Atropine
(2) Physostigmine
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Carbachol
40. Which is not an endogenous catecholamine?
(1) Dopamine
(2) Dobutamine
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Noradrenaline
41. You are being asked to give your expert opinion as a toxicologist regarding an effective antidote for belladonna poisoning. Which of the following agents would you suggest?
(1) Neostigmine
(2) Physostigmine
(3) Pilocarpine
(4) Methacholine
42. Sympathetic Pre :Post ganglionic fiber ratio is
(1) 1:10 to 1:100
(2) 1:20 to 1:100
(3) 1:20 to 1:1000
(4) 1:10 to 1:1000
43. A child, Ramu has swallowed the contents of 2 bottles of a nasal decongestant whose primary : Ingredient is adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs of activation that may occur is this patient include
(1) Tachycardia
(2) Dilatation of pupil
(3) Vasodilation
(4) All of the above
44. Which of the following drug is a third generation β-blocker?
(1) Metoprolol
(2) Timolol
(3) Nadolol
(4) Nebivolol
45. Drug of choice for treatment of acute organophosphate poisoning is
(1) Atropine
(2) Pralidoxime
(3) Neostigmine
(4) Atosiban