Botany Short Question Papers

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Botany Short Question Papers

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Short Question Papers of Botany

1. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanism of DNA replication due to
(a) Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer
(b) Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strands
(c) Discontinuous rather than semi-discontinuous replication
(d) Unidirectional rather than semi-discontinuous replication

2. Which of the following does not code for an enzyme having both helicase and nuclease activity?
(a) Rec-A
(b) Rec-B
(c) Rec-C
(d) Rec-D

3. Which position of a codon is said to wobble?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

4. The role of mRNA in protein synthesis is
(a) It translates genetic code to a specific amino acid
(b) It modifies mRNA molecules prior to protein synthesis
(c) It provides genetic blueprint for the protein
(d) It catalyzes the process

5. The role of small nuclear RNAs in protein synthesis is
(a) It translates genetic code to a specific amino acid
(b) It modifies mRNA molecules prior to protein synthesis
(c) It provides genetic blueprint for the protein
(d) It catalyzes the process

6. Peroxisomes are involved in which type of reactions pertaining to plant photosynthesis
(a) Calvin Cycle
(b) Glycolytic cycle
(c) Glyoxylate cycle
(d) Bacterial photosynthesis

7. In C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation takes place with the help of
(a) PEP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
(b) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(c) RuBP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxy lase
(d) None of the above

8. The hypothesis that all photosynthetic organisms require a source of hydrogen was first proposed by
(a) Van Niel
(b) Hill
(c) Hatch & Slack
(d) Ruber & Kamer

9. The process of photosynthesis is
(a) Reductive, exergonic and catabolic
(b) Reductive, exergonic and anabolic
(c) Reductive, endergonic and catabolic
(d) Reductive, endergonic and anabolic

10. The net gain of ATP produced during the oxidation of one glucose molecule in a plant cell
(a) 38 ATP molecules
(b) 30 ATP molecules
(c) 36 ATP molecules
(d) 24 ATP molecules

11. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are ____________
(a) Ammonifying bacteria
(b) Denitrifying bacteria
(c) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) Nitrifying bacteria

12. Selection of homogygous plants is?
(a) Mass selection
(b) Pure line selection
(c) Hybrid vigour
(d) inbreeding depression

13. Triticale is developed through intergeneric hybridization of
(a) Wheat and Rye
(b) Maize and rice
(c) Wheat and barley
(d) Wheat and rice

14. Semidwarf variety IR8 was developed in
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Philippines
(d) Taiwan

15. Heterosis loss due to continuous inbreeding known as
(a) Hybrid vigour
(b) out breeding depression
(c) Pureline selection
(d) Inbreeding depression

16. Which of the following is not true about RNA
(a) RNA is chemically more reactive than DNA
(b) 2′-OH prevent RNA to adopt Beta-conformation
(c) RNA was discovered by Hoppe-Seyler
(d) feulgen reaction is performed by both DNA and RNA.

17. Which of the following is not a characteristics of DNA?
(a) It is less susceptible to alkaline hydrolysis than RNA
(b) It has hydroxyl group attached to the 3′ carbon at the 3′ end
(c) It is stabilized by hydrogen bonding, vander waals forces and covalent interaction
(d) It can exist in four or more than four helical conformation

18. Which is a incorrect statement
(a) Both primers (R and F) should have similar Tm
(b) Primers cannot share complimentarity
(c) Primers can have palindromic sequences
(d) Primers determine the boundaries of am plified product

19. Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems?
(a) The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term.
(b) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
(c) The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop.
(d) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.

20. Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on Goa’s coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?
(a) competitive exclusion
(b) predation of Chthamalus by Balanus
(c) cooperative displacement
(d) primary succession

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21. Which of the following statements about succession is correct?
(a) Secondary succession occurs where no soil exists.
(b) Primary succession occurs in areas where soil remains after a disturbance.
(c) Secondary succession can occur where a disturbance has left soil intact.
(d) Some cases of succession involve facilitation, a phenomenon in which local species inhibit the growth of newcomers.

22. Landscape ecology is best described as the study of
(a) the array of interacting species within a community
(b) abiotic factors and the community of species that exist in a particular area.
(c) physiological and behavioural ways in which organisms meet the challenges of their environment.
(d) related arrays of ecosystems

23. The El-Nino Phenomenon occurs in
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean

24. What percentage of invasive species are harmful (or potentially harmful)?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) <5

25. The nitrogen cycle differs substantially from the calcium cycle in that
(a) trees require calcium to a greater degree
(b) nitrogen is fixed from atmospheric source s via a symbiosis
(c) calcium is substantially influenced by the activity of legumi nous plants
(d) none of these

26. EIA is defined as
(a) A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating the likely impacts of a proposed project or development to define mitigation actions to reduce negative impacts and to provide positive contributions to the natural environment and well-being
(b) A report written by government representatives on the planned development impacts of environment, socio-economic issues and culture
(c) Project life-cycle assessment
(d) Something that needs to be done to stop controversial projects

27. Deuteromycetes are called imperfect fungi because
(a) The sexual cycle has not been observed
(b) Nothing about them indicates their relation to fungi
(c) They do not produce mycelia
(d) They have no asexual reproduction

28. Which of the following is a reproductive structure of the fungus
(a) Gametangia
(b) Sporangia
(c) Conidia
(d) All of the above

29. Ergotism is responsible for all of the following except
(a) Irish potato famine
(b) Hallucinations
(c) Gangrene
(d) Both A and B

30. Which of the following does not represent a human disease caused by fungi
(a) Ringworm
(b) Cryptococcosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Scabies

31. Which of the following produce motile sexual and asexual spores
(a) Slime molds
(b) Dimorphic fungi
(c) Club fungi
(d) Water mol ds

32. Heterothallism was discovered by
(a) Blakeslee
(b) Faraday
(c) Alexopoulos
(d) Gaumann

33. Black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Puccinia graminis
(b) Puccinia recondite
(c) Puccinia striiformis
(d) Puccinia glumarum

34. Alternaria solani causes:
(a) late blight of potato
(b) wart of potato
(c) early blight of potato
(d) leaf curl of potato

35. Pribnow box is the component of ____________.
(a) Operators
(b) Enhancers
(c) Activators
(d) Promoters

36. Sigma factor is the component of
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) Endonuclease

37. The role of topoisomerases in eukaryotic DNA replication is to
(a) Cut, uncoil and reseal the double stranded DNA
(b) Bind to the origin of replication sites within double stranded DNA
(c) Open up the double stranded DNA at the replication fork
(d) Join the Okazaki fragments together with phosphodietster bonds

38. Which is an incorrect statement?
(a) Foreign DNA placed between left and right border of the Ti plasmid can be transferred to infected plant genome.
(b) Binery vector are those which has TDNA and Vir region on two different vectors without compromising the transformation
(c) Vir region is not essential for transferring the TDNA to plants
(d) Ti plsmid causes plant tumors

39. Which is an incorrect statement?
(a) You do not need dNTP in PCR reaction
(b) Primers are needed in dideoxy method s of DNA sequencing
(c) In dideoxy methods of sequencing only single strand of DNA is sequenced
(d) Radioactivity in PCR is replaced by fluorescence probe

40. Bacterial DNA is not cleaved by their own restriction enzymes because bacteria add_______ to their own DNA
(a) Nucleotides
(b) Methyl group
(c) Ligase
(d) Phosphate

41. Restrction enzyme hydrolyse the backbone of DNA between
(a) PO4 and nitrogen bases
(b) Ribose and nitrogen bases
(c) PO4 and deoxyribose
(d) Nitrogen bases and deoxyribose

42. Which is not correct?
(a) Genomic library contain introns
(b) cDNA library contain fragmented gene
(c) cDNA library does not represent all genes
(d) Genomic library contain upstream and down stream sequences of gene

43. What strategies will be apply to select recombinant DNA
(a) Replica plating
(b) Blue- white colonies
(c) Direct selection vectors
(d) All of the above

44. Which is correct statement
(a) mRNA can be isolated using affinity chromatography
(b) cDNA clone library contain all the gene
(c) Reverse transcriptase synthesises DS DNA from SS DNA
(d) Plasmid accommodate larger foreign DNA than phages

45. An allosteric site on an enzyme is
(a) The same as the active site
(b) Non protein in nature
(c) Where ATP attaches and gives up its energy
(d) Often involved in feedback inhibition

46. Which one of the following statement is correct concerning the Michalis constant Km?
(a) Is measured in the same units as the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reqaction
(b) Varies with the amount of enzyme used in measuring the reaction rate
(c) Can be considered to be a measure of the affinity an enzyme has for its substrate
(d) Has a low value to indicate a low affinity to substrate

47. Which of the following statement about the enzyme complexes of the electron transport system is correct
(a) They interact with one another via mobile electron carriers
(b) They are located in the mitochondrial matrix
(c) They can not be separated from one another in a functional form
(d) They all have cytochorome

48. More free energy is released during the citric acid cycle than during glycolysis, but only 1 mole of ATP is produced for each mole of acetyl Co-A that enters the cycle. What happens to most of the remaining free energy that is produced during the citric acid cycle?
(a) It is used to synthesize GTP
(b) It is used to reduce electron carriers
(c) It is lost as heat
(d) it is used to reduce pyruvate

49. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to the photosystem II found in chloroplasts
(a) PS II is located in the grana
(b) Chlorophyll molecule in the reaction centre of the PS II is bound to a 110 Kd integral membrane protein
(c) A complex of cytochrome b and f transport electron from PS II and PS I
(d) PS II reaction centre is bound to Mn+2 ions.

50. In which of the following organelles glycolates is oxidized to glyoxilate during photorespiration
(a) Chloroplats
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum