Botany NET Question Paper

1. In Drosophila C / B genotype used by Muller, ‘C’ stands for crossover suppressor due to
(1) presence of a suppressor gene
(2) inversion of / B region
(3) a deletion between / and B loci
(4) transposable element between / and B loci

2. Evolutionary relic of a functional gene is called as
(1) Pseudogene
(2) Pseudo allele
(3) Non-allelic gene
(4) Isogeny

3. Haploids may be used to produce
(1) Inversions
(2) Translocations
(3) Aneuploids
(4) both translocations and aneuploids

4. In a nicked circular DNA of known size, the value obtained by dividing its total number of base pairs by the number of base pairs per turn is known as
(1) twisting number
(2) writhe
(3) linking number
(4) pitch

5. Out of these 4 deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates, synthesis of which one is different from the rest ?
(1) ATP
(2) GTP
(3) TTP
(4) CTP

6. During in vitro translation which one of these synthetic ribose messenger does not translate into polypeptide ?
(1) Poly U
(2) Poly G
(3) Poly C
(4) Poly A

7. In bioinformatics, which one of these amino acids is denoted by letter D ?
(1) Alanine
(2) Aspartic acid
(3) Asparagine
(4) Any amino acid

8. To exist as independent self-replicating organism, the minimum number of genes required are
(1) 100-150
(2) 250-350
(3) 450-550
(4) 650-750

9. In a wheat monosomic, the average transmission of female gamete with ‘n’ chromosome is
(1) 100%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%

10. Based on decreasing genomic size of crops which one of these sequence is correct ?
(1) Barley > Wheat > Maize > Rice > Arabidopsis
(2) Wheat > Maize > Barley > Rice >Arabidopsis
(3) Wheat > Barley > Maize > Rice > Arabidopsis
(4) Maize > Wheat > Barley > Arabidopsis > Rice

11. In Rubisco enzyme
(1) Both, the large and small polypeptides are encoded by cpDNA.
(2) Only large polypeptide is encoded by cpDNA.
(3) Only small polypeptide is encoded by cpDNA.
(4) Both, the large and = small polypeptides are encoded by nuclear DNA.

12. In following mapping populations given as
a. Backcross
b. Doubled haploids
c. F2 individuals
d. Recombinant inbred lines
Which one is the correct set of immortal populations ?
(1) a and b
(2) b and d
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

13. Mustard variety “Pusa Jai Kisan’ is a
(1) Somatic hybrid
(2) Composite variety
(3) Transgenic variety
(4) Somaclonal variant

14. Of the 7 subunits of mitochondrial Cytochrome Oxidase C
(1) all subunits are encoded by mt DNA.
(2) all subunits are encoded by nuclear DNA.
(3) only 3 subunits are encoded by mt DNA.
(4) only 4 subunits are encoded by mt DNA.

15. Of the total protein in green leaves, Rubisco protein is about
(1) 70%
(2) 50%
(3) 30%
(4) 25%

16. In DNA, natural selection favoured the use of thymine in place of uracil likely because
(1) Uracil frequently fails to pair with adenine.
(2) Thymine is available in most abundance in the cell.
(3) Uracil interferes with DNA replication.
(4) Cytosine occasionally gets converted into uracil

17. Protein designated as TF II H is related to
(1) Nucleotide excision repair
(2) Base excision repair
(3) Base Mismatch repair
(4) Double strand breakage repair

18. Which one of these mustard varieties was released for entire country ?
(1) Kranti
(2) Durgamani
(3) Laha 101
(4) Vaibhav

19. “Bragg” is an introduced variety of
(1) Chilli
(2) Soyabean
(3) Groundnut
(4) Brinjal

20. Radiation Unit Grey (Gy) equals
(1) 93 ergs
(2) 100 ergs
(3) 100 rads
(4) 93 rads

21. The experimental design that involves crossing selected F2 individuals to two inbred parents and their F1 to work out epistatic component was given by
(1) Comstock and Robinson
(2) Mather and Jinks
(3) Kearsey and Jinks
(4) Hayman and Griffing

22. Given the following molecular markers :
a. RFLP
b. SNP
c. AFLP
d. RAPD
their correct chronological sequence is
(1) a,b,c,d
(2) a,c,d,b
(3) a,d,b,c
(4) a,d,c,b

23. Which one of these components of genetic variance is fixable in the population ?
(1) Additive
(2) Dominance
(3) Additive x dominance
(4) Dominance x dominance

24. In which of these methods the individual traits are successively improved ?
(1) stabilizing selection
(2) selection indices
(3) tandem selection
(4) selection with independent culling levels

25. While conducting test of significance, if a false null hypothesis is accepted, then it amounts to
(1) Type 4 error
(2) Type 3 error
(3) Type 2 error
(4) Type 1 error

26. If 375 genotypes are to be evaluated in the field without replications, then the appropriate design is
(1) Completely randomized design
(2) Randomized block design
(3) Augmented design
(4) Compact family block design

27. Conceptually, Line x Tester design is related to
(1) NCD I
(2) NCD II
(3) NCD III
(4) TTC

28. What is not true about completely randomized design ?
(1) It is simplest in adoption and analysis.
(2) Unequal number of replications for different treatments can be adopted.
(3) Missing data for any replication of some treatments do not complicate the analysis.
(4) It is suitable for large number of treatments.

29. Molecular marker assisted selection for quantitative characters is more important now because
(1) Study of inheritance of quantitative traits was not possible earlier.
(2) Quantitative characters are governed by polygenes.
(3) Majority of polygenes controlling quantitative characters have already assembled into superior populations under cultivation.
(4) Expression of polygenes is not free from influence of environment.

30. In graphical method of diallel analysis for any character overdominance is indicated when the Wr — Vr regression line
(1) passes through origin
(2) passes above origin and cuts Wr axis
(3) passes above origin, cuts Wr axis and touches parabola limit
(4) passes below origin and cuts Vr axis

31. The concept of path analysis was originally developed by
(1) Dewey & Lu
(2) Fisher
(3) Wright
(4) Mahalanobis

32. On the basis of grain yield performance in sorghum, which of the following sequence is correct ?
(1) Vybrid > Hybrid > Pureline
(2) Hybrid > Vybrid > Pureline
(3) Pureline > Vybrid > Hybrid
(4) Pureline > Hybrid > Vybrid

33. What is not true about synthetic varieties ?
(1) Base population consists of inbred lines.
(2) 4-10 parents (inbreds) may be involved.
(3) General combining ability is tested.
(4) Varietal maintenance is difficult.

34. On the basis of theoretical mean performance of single cross (SC), double cross (DC), three way cross (TWC) and synthetic (syn) variety, the correct sequence is
(1) SC>TWC>DC> Syn
(2) DC >TWC>SC> Syn
(3) TWC>DC>SC> Syn
(4) SC>TWC > Syn> DC

35. The progress in ideotype breeding is adversely affected by
(1) Asymmetrical size among plant parts.
(2) Compensation among plant parts.
(3) Pleiotropy and genetic background.
(4) Traits arising at different times and from different meristems.

36. Breeding method not commonly used for improvement of inbred lines available for hybrid development
(1) Pedigree method
(2) Back cross method
(3) Gametic selection
(4) Mutation breeding

37. Which of these assumptions of dominance hypothesis for heterosis is incorrect ?
(1) The genes responsible for heterosis are dominant and beneficial.
(2) The gene effects of the loci involved are completely additive in nature.
(3) There is linkage between the loci.
(4) Increased vigour can be measured in terms of selective advantage.

38. Which one of these is a correct sequence in the decreasing order of inbreeding depression ?
(1) Alfalfa — Pearl millet – Onion — Mung bean
(2) Pearl millet — Alfalfa – Onion — Mung bean
(3) Alfalfa — Onion — Pearl millet — Mung bean
(4) Pearl millet – Onion — Alfalfa — Mung bean

39. Which one of these is related to male sterility in pearl millet ?
(1) Cina cytoplasm
(2) Milo cytoplasm
(3) Tifton cytoplasm
(4) Tms cytoplasm

40. The law of homologous series of variation was postulated by
(1) Stadler
(2) Gustaffson
(3) Shull
(4) Vavilou

41. Besides ICRISAT (Hyderabad), chickpea breeding research is also conducted at
(1) CIMMYT, Mexico
(2) ICARDA, Syria
(3) IRRI, Philippines
(4) AVRDC, Taiwan

42. In F2 generation, phenotypic ratio of 37 : 27 is obtained when in epistasis
(1) alleles of 2 loci interact
(2) alleles of 3 loci interact
(3) alleles of 4 loci interact
(4) alleles of 5 loci interact

43. As a modification of Pedigree method, “bulked progeny test method” was suggested in cotton by
(1) Hays
(2) Frey
(3) Richmond
(4) Harrington

44. In which of the following only extreme phenotypes remain in population ?
(1) Genetic assortative mating
(2) Genetic dis-assortative mating
(3) Phenotypic assortative mating
(4) Phenotypic dis-assortative mating

45. Brassica Juncea is probably a cross between
(1) B nigra and B aleracea
(2) B nigra and B campestris
(3) B aleracea and B campestris
(4) B nigra and B carinata

46. Which one of these crops is a potential source of diosgenin alkaloid ?
(1) Cumin
(2) Clusterbean
(3) Fenugreek
(4) Coriander

47. Which one of these is produced by natural selfing ?
(1) Hybrid
(2) Inbred
(3) Clone
(4) Pure line

48. For production of certified seed of a pearl millet variety the isolation distance will be
(1) 200 meters
(2) 400 meters
(3) 800 meters
(4) 1000 meters

49. The basic chromosome number of groundnut is
(1) x=10
(2) x=20
(3) x=15
(4) x=13

50. In which of the following processes the developed plant is similar to conventional plant breeding ?
(1) Transgenesis
(2) Cisgenesis
(3) Intragenesis
(4) Pangenesis