Agriculture Engineering Practice Set

1. What should be the hypothetical discharge of 10 HP pump working at the efficiency of 75% and at the head of 75 m?
(1) 10 lit/sec
(2) 12.50 lit/sec
(3) 7.50 lit/sec
(4) 15 lit/sec

2. The formula Q=0.61X1077 a / is used to find discharge through circular orifice
under free flow condition. Here, h is expressed as:
(1) Vertical distance between bottom of channel and top of floor.:
(2) Difference between upstream and downstream water level.
(3) Vertical distance between bottom of orifice and top of flow.
(4) Vertical distance between centre of orifice and top of flow.

3. What is the most appropriate mechanically operated equipment for the fine grading of small and medium size fields?
(1) bull dozer
(2) two wheeled automatic leveller
(3) carrier type scrapper
(4) wooden float

4. What must be the depth of the tile lines for the usual channels serving as outlets?
(1) 0.60 m or less
(2) always 0.90 m
(3) 1.2 m or more
(4) 3.0m or more

5. What is the pressure drop usually allowed in a media filter?
(1) 1m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) 4m

6. The pressure head in a sprinkler system is converted into velocity head at:
(1) the sprinkler head
(2) the sprinkler jet
(3) the nozzle
(4) the riser

7. How are the constantly flowing wells due to high hydrostatic pressure within confined aquifers classified as?
(1) Pearched wells
(2) Piezometric wells
(3) Sinking wells
(4) Artesian wells

8. Drainage channel discharges 0.1 cubic metres of water per second and drains 360 hectares, what is the drainage coefficient of this land?
(1) 2.4 mm
(2) 4.9 mm
(3) 9.9 mm
(4) 5.9 mm

9. What will be the formation level of upper and lower grid from centroid in the following case?
(i) centroid =100 m
(ii) slope =0.2%
(iii) Grid distance =30 m
(1) 100.30 m and 99.70 m
(2) 100.60 m and 99.94 m
(3) 101.20 m and 98.80 m
(4) 103.00 m and 97.00 m

10. What is the method of land levelling design; restricted to those fields where it is feasible to grade the field to a true plane?
(1) plane method
(2) profile method
(3) plan inspection method
(4) contour adjustment method

11. Which equation gives the leaching requirement for the salt affected soil?
(1) Dd/Di
(2) ECd/ECi
(3) Di/Dd
(4) ECi
(5) ECe

12. What is the line which gives the sum of pressure head and datum head of a flowing fluid in a pipe with respect to some reference line, known as?
(1) total energy line
(2) datum line
(3) hydraulic gradient line
(4) reference line

13. What is the ratio between the actual velocity of a jet of liquid at vena – contracta and the theoretical velocity of jet, called?
(1) coefficient of friction
(2) coefficient of discharge
(3) coefficient of contraction
(4) coefficient of velocity

14. How is the safe agricultural area categorised as per the working group on problem identification in irrigated areas constituted by the Ministry of Water Resources Govt. of India (MOWK 1991)?
(1) Water table touching the land surface.
(2) Water table between 2 to 3 m from land surface.
(3) Water table below 3.0 m from land surface.
(4) Water table within 2.0 m from land surface.

15. What is generally the diameter of observation wells for pumping tests of wells?
(1) less than 2.5 m
(2) ranging between 2.5 to 5 cm
(3) more than 5 cm
(4) about 30 cm

16. Complete the following sentence meaningfully.
Flow through channel is said to be steady, when velocity of flow is:
(1) constant at point over length
(2) constant at point over time
(3) varying at point over length
(4) varying at point over time

17. What is the condition for the trapezoidal channel section to be most economical?
(m=hydraulic mean depth and d=depth of fluid)
(1) m=d/2
(2) d=m/2
(3) m=d/4
(4) d=m/4

18. Where the gravel filter and the base material are more or less uniformly graded for gravel envelope, without a lack or excess of certain particle sizes, a filter stability ratio is generally safe, when it is?
(1) less than 5
(2) more than 5
(3) more than 7
(4) none of these

19. Which of the following components of canal system is supposed to be maintained by farmer?
(1) Distributory
(2) Water course
(3) Minor
(4) Branch canal

20. What for are propeller pumps specifically adopted?
(1) low head and high discharge operations
(2) high head and low discharge operations
(3) high head and high discharge operations
(4) low head and lew discharge operations

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21. At what flexibility the canal outlet is known to be hyper proportional?
(1) equal to unity
(2) less than unity
(3) greater than unity
(4) none of these

22. What is the structure known as when the HFL of the drain is sufficiently below the bottom of the canal so that the drainage water flows freely under gravity?
(1) syphon aqueduct
(2) canal syphon
(3) aqueduct
(4) super passage

23. What does duty of any crop signify?
(1) It is a discharge in cumec released aver base period.
(2) It is a period in days for which one cumec discharge is released.
(3) it is an area in hectares irrigated by one cumec discharge released continuously for base period for that particular crop.
(4) it is discharge in cumec required to be released for 100 ha area for that particular crop.

24. What is the suction limit of a centrifugal pump?
(1) 10m
(2) 21m
(3) 6m
(4) 35m

25. What are the characteristics of shallow tube wells?
(1) high capacity and depth mere than 325 m
(2) low capacity and depth less than 35 m
(3) high capacity and depth between 60 – 300 m
(4) low capacity and depth between 60 – 300 m

26. What is the stream which becomes dry soon after the end of rainstorm referred as?
(1) intermittent stream
(2) perennial stream
(3) ephemeral stream
(4) influent stream

27. Which of the following is the economic flood control structure in the earthen dike like form?
(1) Retarding basins
(2) Close conduits
(3) Retaining walls
(4) Levees

28. What is the remedial measure of controlling reservoir sedimentation that becomes economically impracticable?
(1) removal of sediment deposit
(2) control of sediment inflow
(3) design of reservoir
(4) watershed erosion control

29. Which one is the common suspended load sampler?
(1) Pumping sampler
(2) Core sampler
(3) Width sampler
(4) Open sampler

30. How is the weighing factor defined as, in Thissen polygon method of determination of average precipitation over an area?
(1) Polygon area/Total area
(2) Polygon area x Total area
(3) Total area/Polygon area
(4) Point rainfall/Average rainfall

31. What is the capacity of each compartment of tipping bucket type raingauge?
(1) 0.20 mm rainfall depth
(2) 0.25 mm rainfall depth
(3) 0.30 mm rainfall depth
(4) 0.50 mm rainfall depth

32. The 3:1 and 4: 1 side slopes towards upstream and downstream, respectively should be provided to earthen dam for which type of soils?
(1) Well graded soil
(2) Average quality fill material
(3) Relatively coarse fill material
(4) Coherent soil

33. What is the value/range of moderate intensity based on the falling rate of rainfall?
(1) 2.5 mm/h
(2) 2.5 to 7.5 mm/h
(3) 7.5 to 15.0 mm/h
(4) 15.0 to 22.0 mm/h

34. When isolated bodies of resistant rock from prominent hills are found above the subdued surface, which phase occurs?
(1) Inequilibrium
(2) Equilibrium
(3) Hypsometric
(4) Monadnock

35. What is the value of bifurcation ratio if, the number of streams of order u are 15 and order u+1, are 4?
(1) 0.27
(2) 0.72
(3) 0.75
(4) 3.75

36. In what form the relationship between rainfall and runoff for large catchments exists?
(1) Linear
(2) Logarithmic
(3) Exponential
(4) none of the above

37. Which shape of grassed waterway amongst the following is hydrologically more efficient and easy to construct?
(1) Triangular
(2) Trapezoidal
(3) Half – circle
(4) Parabolic

38. In which soils will the soil erosion be highest?
(1) soil under cultivated crop
(2) soil surface covered by plant canopy
(3) soil surface under grass cover
(4) soil surface under forest cover

39. What is the term for lines joining all prints in a basin by some key time elements in a storm?
(1) Isobaths
(2) Isobars
(3) Isochrones
(4) Isohyetes

40. As per the FAO 1965 recommendation, what should be the width for wind – strip cropping for sandy loam soil?
(1) 6m
(2) 85m
(3) 30m
(4) 105 m

41. Watersheds A and B have same area, but A has greater stream density than that of B. Which watershed will yield higher peak runoff?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) A and B equally
(4) None of the above

42. When will the width of bench terrace be more, for a predetermined depth of cut?
(1) when batter slope is 0.5: 1
(2) when batter slope is 1:1
(3) when batter slope is 2: 1
(4) when batter is vertical

43. What should be the non – erodible velocity for sandy soils?
(1) 0.25 m/s
(2) 0.50 m/s
(3) 0.75 m/s
(4) 1.0 m/s

44. In general, what should be the maximum limit for a continuous terrace length, provided that the terrace should carry the runoff in only one direction.
(1) 400 to 500 m
(2) 600 to 800 m
(3) 0.8 to 1km
(4) 200 to 400 ft

45. What is the value of constant of channel maintenance if, the drainage density of basin is 0.005 m/m2?
(1) 100m
(2) 200m
(3) 300m
(4) 400m

46. Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.
Side slope in contour and graded bund is designed on the basis of _______________.
(1) bund height
(2) bund base width
(3) slope of seepage line
(4) angle of repose of soil

47. Why is soil loss estimation equation referred as ‘universal soil loss equation’?
(1) Its validity is more
(2) It is universally adopted
(3) It accounts for all parameters affecting soil erosion
(4) It is developed by USDA

48. What is the erodibility factor if, the adjusted soil loss and R, factor become 80 tonnes/ha and 800 units respectively?
(1) 1.0
(2) 1.10
(3) 0.10
(4) 10.0

49. For a storm of any given duration with large return period, what will its intensity be?
(1) Zero
(2) Smaller
(3) Larger
(4) equal

50. What is the horizontal distance between the graded terraces, if the land slope is 5%?
(1) 40m
(2) 30m
(3) 10m
(4) 50m