Political Science Test Papers

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Political Science Test Papers

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Test Papers on Political Science

1. Which of the following are the elements of soft power of a state?
(a) Culture
(b) Language
(c) Foreign Aid
(d) Weapons
(e) Diaspora
(A) (a) (c) (d) (e)
(B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) (a) (b) (d) (e)
(D) (a) (b) (c) (e)

2. With respect to International Law, which of the following statements are false:
(a) Treaties are a principal source of law
(b) The behaviour of states in international relations is limited and regulated by international law
(c) Compared to national law, international law is a strong law
(d) Due to lack of sanction of force, International law is code of international morality
(A) (c), (d)
(B) only (c)
(C) only (d)
(D) (b), (d)

3. Which among the following pair of countries are demanding a permanent seat in the Security Council of the United Nations?
(A) Germany, Canada
(B) Japan, South Korea
(C) Switzerland, Canada
(D) Germany, Japan

4. An action taken to avoid disputes from arising between countries and to avoid existing disputes from escalating into conflicts is referred to as:
(A) Collective Security
(B) Alliances
(C) Conflict Resolution
(D) Preventive Diplomacy

5. Select the correct answer from the key given below:
The agenda of the New International Economic Order included the restructuring of:
(a) International trade
(b) International monetary and Financial system
(c) UN General Assembly
(d) World Trade Organisation
(A) (b), (c)
(B) (c), (d)
(C) (a), (c)
(D) (a), (b)

6. Which of the following regional groups has the lowest percentage of intra-regional trade?
(B) Mercosure
(D) EU

7. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Conflict in Chechnya is an example of genocide
(B) India and China have a border dispute over Tibet
(C) Kosovo fought a war for secession from Croatia
(D) Indonesia and Thailand have a maritime boundary dispute over Spratly Islands

8. The meaning of Kantaka Shodhana Court is:
(A) Civil Court
(B) Criminal Court
(C) Special Court to try criminals
(D) Tribunal

9. According to Aristotle, slave and animals cannot form the state because:
(A) They are extremely weak
(B) They have no share in the life of free choice
(C) They enjoy subservient position
(D) They lack intelligence

10. Who said it ‘give unto God that belonged to God, give unto king that belonged to king’?
(A) Pope Gelasius
(B) Saint Paul
(C) Jesus Christ
(D) Saint Augustine

11. Who opposed the secret ballot and proposed open ballots system?
(A) T. H. Green
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Bentham
(D) Hegel

12. Lenin was of the opinion that in revolutionary politics:
(A) Cities should encircle villages
(B) There should be alliance of workers and farmers
(C) Villages should encircle cities
(D) Peasants should be vanguard of revolution.

13. Which one of the following is the credo of post-behaviourism?
(A) Value relativism
(B) Value neutralism
(C) Relevance and change
(D) Relevance and stability

14. Mao Tse Tung’s theory of three worlds consists of:
(A) U.S.A., China and Afro Asian countries
(B) U.S.A. and West Europe, Soviet Union and East Europe and Countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America
(C) U.S.A. and U.S.S.R., West Europe and East Europe and Asia, Africa and Latin America
(D) U.S.A. and China, U.S.S.R and India, Africa and Asia

15. Who said it, ‘Graded inequality is the hindrance in establishing social democracy in India’:
(A) M.G. Ranade
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) M.N. Roy
(D) M.K. Gandhi

16. Which of the following is a libertarian thinker?
(A) Michael Walzer
(B) Ronald Dworkin
(C) Robert Nozic
(D) Syla Benhabib

17. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Cultural Revolution —Trotsky
(B) Passive Revolution —Gramsci
(C) Permanent revolution — Mao Tse Tung
(D) ‘Jasmin’ revolution— G.A. Nasser

18. Who among the following adopted decision-making approach to study power?
(A) Gabriel Almond
(B) Sydney Verba
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) David Easton

19. In which country the option of replacing the ‘first past the post’ system was rejected recently?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

20. A feature of the semi-presidential system is:
(A) The President’s powers are shared by the speaker of the Lower House
(B) The President is elected by the people and the Prime Minister is responsible to the Parliament
(C) There is provision of President at the centre and Presidents of Republic
(D) There is a collegiate that performs the role of the President

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21. In the traditional political system, authority is legitimised through:
(A) Election
(B) Selection
(C) Consecration
(D) Conquest

22. Who has initiated reforms in the composition of House of Lords in England?
(A) Swaraj Paul
(B) Bhiku Parekh
(C) Meghnad Desai
(D) Adam Patel

23. One of the reasons for the erosion of parliamentary sovereignty is:
(A) Formation of coalition governments
(B) Globalisation
(C) Decline of imperialism
(D) Decline of Bi-cameralism

24. Who is the author of the book, ‘The Cabinet Government’?
(A) Walter Bagehot
(B) Ivor Jennings
(C) Allan Ball
(D) S.E. Finer

25. Which one of the following is NOT a federal state?
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Pakistan

26. The semi-Presidential system is found in:
(B) UK
(C) India
(D) Russia

27. Who among the following emphasized ‘structural differentiations’ and ‘secularization of culture’ as the important indicators of political development?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Organski
(C) Almond and Powell
(D) Huntington

28. Who among the following, conceptualized “Modern, traditional and saintly idioms” for understanding Indian politics?
(A) W.H. Morris-Jones
(B) Robert Hardgrave
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Stanley Kochanek

29. Who is the author of ‘India: The Most Dangerous Decade’?
(A) Robert Hardgrave
(B) James Manor
(C) Seilig Harrison
(D) Craig Baxter

30. The preamble is:
(A) a part of the constitution
(B) not a part of the constitution
(C) the last chapter of the constitution
(D) a part of the directive principles of state policy

31. Public interest litigation can be filed by:
(A) affected party
(B) the judge
(C) the third party
(D) the state

32. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution defines the relationship between the Indian Union and:
(A) Nagaland
(B) Punjab
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Jammu and Kashmir

33. Fundamental duties are added in Indian Constitution by:
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 40th Amendment
(C) 41st Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment

34. Secularism in the context of Indian Constitution means:
(A) State is prohibited from making laws on religion
(B) State actions are to be separated from religion
(C) Heads of religions are not allowed to take part in politics
(D) State does not discriminate on the ground of religion

35. Right to property was removed from Part III of the Indian Constitution by:
(A) 41st Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment

36. Sarkaria Commission was appointed to look into the relations between:
(A) the Prime Minister and the President
(B) the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) the States and the States
(D) the Centre and the States

37. Who among the following is the subaltern peasant historian?
(A) David Hardiman
(B) Eric Stokes
(C) Jan Bremen
(D) Kathleen Gough

38. Which of the following statements is true as regards Central Vigilance Commission?
(A) The jurisdiction of the Commission does not cover Nongazetted officers of the Government.
(B) The jurisdiction of the Commission does not cover Gazetted officers.
(C) The jurisdiction of the Commission does not cover ministers and members of the Parliaments.
(D) The commission submits its report to the Parliament

39. Which of the following names is associated with New Public Administration?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) L.D. White
(D) F.W. Taylor

40. Development Administration is:
(A) Rules bound
(B) Action oriented
(C) Procedure oriented
(D) Standard practices oriented

41. Classical theory of organisation is also known as:
(A) Mechanistic theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Psychological theory
(D) Human relations theory

42. Which of the following is a ‘line’ function?
(A) Advising
(B) Fact finding
(C) Executing
(D) Planning

43. Union Public Service Commission in India is NOT concerned with:
(A) Making appointments to civil services.
(B) Consultation relating to recruitment to civil services.
(C) Disciplinary matters affecting central government employees.
(D) Principles to be followed in making appointment to civil services.

44. The vacancies of the staff side of the National Whitley Council in the U.K. are filled by:
(A) The King
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Government
(D) The staff side itself

45. Which of the following statements is correct as regards estimates committee of Indian parliament?
(A) The committee consists of 15 members.
(B) The committee is set up after every 5 years.
(C) The committee consists of equal members from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(D) Minister cannot be appointed on the committee.

46. Right from the beginning, the most contentious issue regarding the creation of the institution of Lokpal has been:
(A) his pay and allowances
(B) his tenure
(C) his jurisdiction
(D) his qualifications

47. “Good Governance’ stresses”:
(A) Bureaucratization
(B) Centralisation
(C) Accountability
(D) Abolition of government

48. Which one of the following is a tangible element of power?
(A) System of Government
(B) Social Coherence
(C) Military Strength
(D) Political Leadership

49. Who appoints the UN Secretary General?
(A) General Assembly and Security Council
(B) Security Council and Economic and Social Council
(C) Economic and Social Council and International Court of Justice
(D) International Court of Justice and General Assembly

50. The turning point of the cold war is considered as:
(A) Korean War
(B) Cuban Missiles Crisis
(C) Division of Germany
(D) Vietnam War

51. Which of the of the following is the functional norm of the ASEAN?
(A) Consultation and consensus
(B) Institutionalised procedures of decision-making
(C) Principle of majority
(D) Principle of unanimity

52. SAFTA is the economic arm of:
(C) EU

53. Which of the following is an indicator of the post cold war Atlantic divide in international relations?
(A) The chief of the IMF is a European and the chief of the World Bank is an American.
(B) The US dollar is appreciating but the Euro is depreciating.
(C) The US and the EU are competing with each other to invite investment from China.
(D) The US and the EU have opposing views on subsidies on Agriculture in the WTO.

54. The Nineteenth century European balance of power system is known as:
(A) Bipolar system
(B) Multipolar system
(C) Unipolar system
(D) Non-polar system

55. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(A) Hans Morgenthau — Realist theory
(B) Immanuel Wallerstein —Game theory
(C) Kenneth Waltz — Behaviourism
(D) Andre Gunder Frank — Critical theory

56. Which of the following is not an underlying principle of India’s foreign policy?
(A) Peaceful coexistence
(B) Making military pacts
(C) Non-intervention
(D) Sovereign-equality of nation states

57. Which of the following correctly describes the aims of India’s look east policy?
(A) Expansion of trade, containment of Pakistan, countering threat of terrorism.
(B) Expansion of trade, energy security, security of North-East India.
(C) Energy security, competition with China, containment of Pakistan.
(D) Expansion of trade, competition with China, containing US influence in the Indian Ocean.