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Important Questions on Political Science
1. Which of the following is not a tenet of Realism?
(A) The centrality of security and survival
(B) The importance of the virtues of strength and cunning
(C) Values of Intelligence, nerve and risk taking
(D) State is a major actor along with others non-state actors
2. What did the Westphalian system denote?
(A) The duty of nation-states to adhere to the Church
(B) International alliances would take precedence
(C) Rise of the modern nation-state
(D) King had the divine right to rule
3. Who enunciated the Fourteen points at the Treaty of Versailles?
(D) Woodrow Wilson
4. What was the name of the massive economic rebuilding plan for Western Europe which was to rebuilt was torn economies after Second World War?
(B) Marshall Plan
(D) IMF Loans
5. Which among the following are tangible elements of power?
(1) Physical Geography and Geopolitics
(2) Natural Resources and raw materials
(4) National character and morale
(A) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct
(C) (2), (3) and (4) are correct
(D) (1), (3) and (4) are correct
6. The Acheson Plan which was a result of the Korean war in 1950 was an example of:
(A) Splendid Isolation
(B) Peaceful coexistence
(C) Collective Security
(D) Balance of Power
7. Choose the correct chronological order on the basis of the codes given below:
(1) Tokyo Round
(2) Kennedy Round
(3) Doha Round
(4) Uruguay Round
(A) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(D) (3), (4), (1), (2)
8. Give correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): India’s LEAP (Look East and Act Policy) began before 1991.
Reason (R): The Cholas were a naval power that traded in the Indo-Pacific region
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
9. Where did the first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) take place in 1961?
(D) New Delhi
10. Which one of the following countries is not a member of BIMSTEC?
11. The Dharmasthiya court means:
(A) The Court of Criminal Justice
(B) The Court of Civil Matters
(C) The Court of Juries
(D) The Court of Try Sedition
12. Which one of the following statements is not a criticism of Plato by Aristotle?
(A) Plato made no distinction between ideal state and household
(B) His ideal state was nothing but tyranny of reason
(C) The state is ‘writ large’ of the individual
(D) Unity and not plurality is the essential feature of the ideal state
13. Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(1) Machiavelli’s basic assumptions about the nature of politics are the same in the Prince and the Discourses
(2) The Discourses was the continuation of argument for strong monarchy
(3) The Prince should not make profession of goodness in every thing when he was living in many who were not good
(A) (1) and (3) are correct, (2) is wrong
(B) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(C) (1), (2) and (3) are wrong
(D) (1) and (2) are wrong and (3) is correct
14. Give correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Hobbes—a great proponent of absolute sovereignty—laid the foundation of liberal theory of state.
Reason (R): He asked the state to ensure liberty of individual by giving him autonomy in the economic sphere.
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct answer of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct answer of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
15. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Opposition to — Bentham Natural law
(B) Political — Rousseau obligation
(C) Self-regarding — T.H. Green liberty
(D) Civil religion — J.S. Mill
16. Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(1) The relations of production are constituted by division of labour.
(2) The relations of production form the structure of society.
(3) The relations of production form superstructure of society.
(A) (1) and (3) are correct, (2) is wrong
(B) (1) and (2) are correct, (3) is wrong
(C) (1) is correct, (2) and (3) are wrong
(D) (2) is correct, (1) and (3) are wrong
17. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) A. Gramsci — Hegemony
(B) V.I. Lenin — Imperialism
(C) Mao-Tse Tung— Mass line
(D) Stalin — Theory of three worlds
18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) M.N. Roy moved from Communism to New Humanism
(B) V.D. Sawarkar moved from armed revolution to Hindutva
(C) Jai Prakash moved from Sarvodaya to Nav Nirman Movement
(D) Aurobindo Ghosh moved from the armed revolution to spiritualism
19. Which one of the following thinkers declared that our credo was relevance and action and we must reach out to the people?
(A) I. Berlin
(B) D. Easton
(C) Karl Deutch
(D) T. Parsons
20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) I. Berlin — Two concepts of Liberty
(B) J. Rawls — Theory of Justice
(C) Robert Dahl — Taking rights seriously
(D) C.B. — Democratic Macpherson theory—essays in retrieval
21. The post-cold war comparative politics prefers to classify the contemporary political systems as:
(A) Oriental and occidental systems
(B) First world, second world and third world systems
(C) Democracies, transitional democracies and nondemocracies
(D) Primitive, traditional and modern systems
22. Which among the following constitutes the basis of classification of political systems in ‘Comparative Politics: A Developmental Approach’ by Almond and Powell?’
(A) Distinction between Western and Non-western political systems
(B) Distinction between democratic and non-democratic regimes
(C) Secularization of culture and structural differentiation
(D) Distinction between charismatic and rational-legal authority
23. Which among the following is the source of American Constitutionalism?
(A) Doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty
(B) Collective responsibility of the ministers to legislature
(C) Territorial division of power
(D) Limited monarchy
24. Which among the following is a conversion function of the political system?
(A) Political Socialization
(B) Political Recruitment
(C) Regulation and control of human behaviour
(D) Interest articulation
25. The five-fold classification of bureaucracy as representative bureaucracy, party-state bureaucracy, military dominated bureaucracy, ruler dominated bureaucracy and ruling bureaucracy is attributed to:
(A) Max Weber
(B) La Palombara
(C) J. Leeper Freeman
(D) Marle Fainsod
26. All political structures are multifunctional, however, according to Almond and Powell political parties and bureaucracy are primarily:
(A) Interest articulation structures
(B) Interest aggregation structures
(C) Communication structures
(D) Socialization structure
27. Elitist theory emerged as a reaction to:
(A) Classical liberalism and Marxism
28. The deliberative powers of the legislature in the era of Globalization have considerably declined because:
(a) Availability of several public fora to articulate the interests of society
(b) Urgency for quick decision making
(c) Increasing technicality and complexity of issues
(d) Pressure from neighbouring countries
(A) (a), (b), (c)
(B) (b), (c), (d)
(C) (a), (c), (d)
(D) (a), (b), (d)
29. Who among the following outlined the types of dependency as colonial dependency, financial-industrial dependency and new dependency?
(A) Paul Baran
(B) Andre Gunder Frank
(C) Theontonio Dos Santos
(D) Fernando Henrique Cardoso
30. The idea of separate representation for Muslims was first introduced by the British in India through:
(A) The Government of India Act, 1892
(B) The Government of India Act, 1909
(C) The Government of India Act, 1919
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
31. The freedom to fly the National Flag comes under the purview of which Article related to fundamental right?
(A) Article 19 (I) (a)
(B) Article 19 (4)
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 23
32. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy shows the sensitivity of the Government towards the Environment?
(A) Article 50
(B) Article 49
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 48 A
33. Which Constitutional Amendment made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to an amendment to the Constitution?
(A) 26th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 24th Amendment
(D) 23rd Amendment
34. Which one of the following practices is followed as a convention while appointing the Governor of the State?
(A) The person concerned must be the resident of the state to which he or she is to be appointed
(B) The person concerned must be a member of the ruling party at the centre
(C) The person concerned should not be a resident of the state to which he or she is to be appointed
(D) The person concerned must be well versed in the official language of the state to which he or she is to be appointed
35. The power to pardon of the President of India is based on the:
(A) discretion of President
(B) advice of the Supreme Court of India
(C) advice of Council of Ministers
(D) advice of Attorney General of India
36. Which one of the following Parliamentary elections was a midterm election?
(A) Parliamentary election of 2009
(B) Parliamentary election of 2004
(C) Parliamentary election of 1996
(D) Parliamentary election of 1991
37. Which one of the following judges of the Supreme Court practiced Judicial activism?
(A) Justice Patanjali Shastri
(B) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar
(C) Justice J.A. Shah
(D) Justice V.K. Krishna Aiyer
38. Give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): There is erosion of public support to national parties after 1991.
Reason (R): The division of the Janata Dal in caste based parties was the result of post-Mandal politics.
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct answer of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the answer of (A)
(D) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
39. One of the important peasant movements in India aggressively supported new economic policies because:
(A) It held that the NEP would compell the government to give remunerative prices
(B) It would help farmers to get remunerative prices for their land
(C) It would open the world grain markets for Indian peasants
(D) It would strengthen the lands of Agricultural Prices Commission
40. New public management advocated:
(A) Administered development
(B) Market-friendly administration
(D) More investment in public sector
41. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions seek to ensure:
(A) Sense of security
(B) Economic welfare
(D) Economic equality
42. Which principle of organisation enables one to fix responsibility at different levels?
(B) Span of Control
(C) Unity of Command
43. One of the disadvantage of ‘Efficiency Rating’ is:
(A) It is flexible
(B) It brings rigidity
(C) It is easy to favour an employee
(D) It is subjective
44. In National Whitley Council in V.K.
(A) The Chairman of the Council belongs to the official side
(B) The Vice-Chairman of the Council always belongs to the official side
(C) In the absence of the Chairman, Vice-Chairman presides over the meeting
(D) Decisions of the National Whitley Council are binding on the Government
45. Which of the following is not the main element in Weberian model of bureaucracy?
(C) Oral Orders
46. One of the dimensions of leadership behaviour, according to ‘Theory Y’ is:
(A) Human Relations
(C) Concern for productivity
(D) Autocratic style
47. Performance Budget focuses:
(A) Expenditure involved
(B) Staff requirement
(C) Functions, purpose and capacity
(D) Total income
48. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of ‘Good Governance’?
(B) Rule of Law
49. Which among the following are the important factors in the Game theory?
(b) Rules of the Game
(c) Rational Behaviour
(e) Personality factor
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (a) (b) (d) (e)
(C) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(D) (a) (c) (d) (e)
50. Which of the following is the Realist perspective of National interest?
(A) National Interest and international security are necessarily compatible
(B) National interest is constructed through social dynamics
(C) The core of National interest can be objectively determined
(D) Idea of National interest changes when the party in power changes