Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Practice Set

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Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Practice Set

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Practice Set of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation

1. Which of the following is not associated with Down syndrome?
(1) Hypotonia
(2) Flat facies
(3) Mental deficiency
(4) Long neck

2. You are examining a child of 5 months age presence of which primitive reflex would you concern about?
(1) Plantar grasp
(2) Moro reflex
(3) Palmar grasp
(4) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex

3. Which neuromuscular therapy to a cerebral palsy patient emphasizes on normalising tone, inhibit primitive reflexes and facilitate automatic reaction and normal movement pattern?
(1) Bobath neurodevelopmental therapy
(2) Rood sensorimotor approach
(3) Brunnstrom approach
(4) Doman delacato pattern therapy

4. A child with GMFCS 3 Level demonstrates the following
(1) walking without assisted device
(2) use power wheelchair indoors and outdoors
(3) transported in manual wheelchair
(4) walking using assisted device indoors

5. At what age should a child starts to tie shoes, copies a diamond, can walk securely on a balance beam and can play involves games with rules?
(1) 4 year
(2) 3 year
(3) 6 year
(4) 5 year

6. Which physiological changes related to aging is included among factors that necessitate decrease loading dose for water soluble medicines?
(1) Decrease fat mass
(2) Decrease total body water
(3) Decrease intestinal motility
(4) Decrease cardiac output

7. Which physiological factor in elderly persons exacerbates orthostasis?
(1) Decrease in arterial stiffness
(2) Decrease in peripheral resistance
(3) Decrease baroreceptor response
(4) Decrease creatinine clearance

8. Which is most common congenital limb deficiency?
(1) Phocomelia
(2) Transhumeral deficiency
(3) Right terminal transradial deficiency
(4) Left terminal transradial deficiency

9. After cardiac transplant
(1) resting pulse is reduced as a result of increased vagal tone
(2) cardiac output does not respond to exercise
(3) Exercise intensity is gauged by Borg scale of perceived exertion
(4) Peak heart rate is typically 25% higher than age matched controls

10. All are true regarding sympathetic storm in traumatic brain injury except
(1) Clinical manifestation includes tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, hyperthermia and dystonia
(2) When uncontrolled it may result in arrhythmias, cardiac infraction or neurogenic pulmonary oedema
(3) Usually associated with mild form of traumatic brain injury
(4) First line management drugs are propranolol and opioids

11. All drugs are used for pharmacological management of Autonomic dysreflexia except
(1) Amlodipine
(2) Nifedipine
(3) Captopril
(4) Prazosin

12. Regarding sexual or reproductive function in women with spinal cord injury (SCI) which is correct?
(1) Autonomic dysreflexia can occur with labor contractions in women with T6 or higher injury
(2) Women missing sensation in the T11- L2 dermatomes cannot experience psychogenic arousal
(3) Women with intact bulbocavernous reflex can experience orgasm
(4) All of above

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding sexual function in males after spinal cord injury (SCI)?
(1) Most men will retain the ability to ejaculate during sexual intercourse
(2) Reflexogenic erections are uncommon
(3) Intracavernosal injection therapy can induce erections
(4) Sildenafil can induce ejaculation

14. A diagnosed case of Haemophilia-A is presented in the disability evaluation board for disability scoring. The patients is presented with 20° flexion contracture at left knee joint, his factor level less than 1%, and also giving history of 4 episodes of joint bleed in last 5 months. What is the patient’s disability score?
(1) 40-50%
(2) 51-60%
(3) 60-79%
(4) 80-85%

15. A patient of CVA with left side hemiparesis came to the disability board for disability certificate. On clinical examination grade one spasticity was noted in left upper and lower limb; he was able to look after his own affairs without any assistance but was unable to carry out all previous activities. Determine the patient’s disability score.
(1) Less than 40%
(2) 40% to 50%
(3) 51% to 60%
(4) 61% to 80%

16. As per Rights of Person with Disability Act 2016, reservation in government jobs for person with benchmark disability is not less than
(1) 4%
(2) 5%
(3) 6%
(4) 3%

17. According to WHO classification an example of impairment is
(1) Hypertension
(2) Weakness of one arm
(3) Loss of ability to do dress
(4) Need AFO to walk

18. A patient has one inch shortening of his left lower limb; what is the additional weightage in disability score calculation is as far as his shortening is concern?
(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 4%
(4) 6%

19. On short axis musculoskeletal ultrasound imaging which structure has honeycomb appearance (in transverse appearance)?
(1) Ligament and tendon
(2) Nerve
(3) Muscle
(4) Bone

20. Which is not true regarding neuromuscular stimulation?
(1) Use to improve functions in SCI patients
(2) Useful in poliomyelitis
(3) Recruitment of slow twitch fibres is most desirable
(4) Ideal stimulation frequency ranges between 12-16 Hz for upper extremity

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. All are true regarding Intrathecal Baclofen Therapy (ITB) for treating spasticity as compare to oral baclofen except
(1) ITB allows around 100 fold increases In potency
(2) ITB allows more exposure of drug to brain so it is more sedative as compare to oral baclofen
(3) ITB is usually recommended to control lower limb spasticity
(4) ITB catheter is usually placed around T10 vertebral body

22. Complication of shock wave treatment are all except
(1) Soft tissue swelling
(2) Muscle weakness
(3) Nerve lesion
(4) Transient bone oedema

23. The following is an advance robotic gait training devices use for the peoples with spinal cord injury :
(1) Tethered exoskeletons
(2) End effector device
(3) Patient guided suspension system
(4) All of the above

24. What is minimum door width requirement for a disabled person who is walking with the help of axillary crutch?
What is minimum clear floor ground area required to turn a wheelchair?
(1) 920 mm
(2) 600 mm
(3) 810 mm
(4) 1220 mm

25. Choose the correct statement for Platelet Rich Plasma (PRP) therapy
(1) EDTA is the preferred anti- coagulant while preparing the PRP
(2) Exogenous activation of PRP solution is possible before injection
(3) It is a FDA approved treatment in rheumatoid arthritis
(4) There is no roll of environmental temperature while preparing PRP

26. Which is true regarding platelet rich plasma (PRP) injections?
(1) Leucocyte rich PRP are better for muscle and tendon injury
(2) Leucocyte poor PRP is better for intra-articular injection
(3) Leucocyte rich PRP has pro-inflammatory cells for better wound healing
(4) All of the above

27. Networked Neuroprostheses (NNP), a latest innovation in implanted Neuroprosthesis for SCI people, which statement regarding this prosthesis is incorrect?
(1) Stimulate paralysed muscles throughout the body
(2) Record myoelectric signals from muscles under voluntary control
(3) No temperature monitoring is required
(4) 3 axis accelerometer data to record torso and upper extremity motion

28. Scott-Craig orthosis is used in
(1) Grade 3 OA knee
(2) Anterior cruciate ligament tear
(3) Paraplegia
(4) Cerebral palsy

29. Which is characteristic of first order lever in biomechanics?
(1) Fulcrum lies between load and effort
(2) Effort between fulcrum and load
(3) Load between fulcrum and effort
(4) Lever has mechanical disadvantage

30. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the branch of
(1) Basilar artery
(2) Internal carotid
(3) Vertebral
(4) Posterior cerebral

31. Mini mental status examination includes testing of
(1) Orientation
(2) Language
(3) Attention
(4) All of above

32. Trail making test examines the functions of which lobe of brain?
(1) Frontal
(2) Parietal
(3) Temporal
(4) Occipital

33. Patient not able to read or unable to understand the written speech can be described as
(1) Alexia
(2) Agraphia
(3) Acalculia
(4) Agnosia

34. Onuf nucleus is related to which innervation in bladder?
(1) Hypogastric
(2) Pelvic
(3) Pudental
(4) Sympathetic

35. Which of the following cells is responsible for blood brain barrier in : central nervous system?
(1) Schwann cell
(2) Astrocyte
(3) Microglia
(4) Oligodendrocyte

36. Which of the following muscle is not a medical rotator of shoulder joint?
(1) Pectoralis major
(2) Latissimusdors
(3) Teres major
(4) Infraspinatus

37. A patient’s signs and symptoms include severe impaired auditory comprehension and very limited speech. The patient is able to produce few understandable utterances and the speech is marked by preservative utterances and repeatedly. This kind of aphasia is called as
(1) Wernicks aphasia
(2) Transcortical motor aphasia
(3) Conduction aphasia
(4) Global aphasia

38. With left hemispheric stroke what manoeuvre can be employed to prevent pooling of food in right pyriform sinus?
(1) Head rotation to left
(2) Head tilt to left
(3) Chin tuck
(4) Mendelson maneuver

39. Radial nerve is branch of which part of brachial plexus?
(1) Upper trunk
(2) Lateral cord
(3) Lower trunk
(4) Posterior cord

40. Which is not a branch of lateral cord of brachial plexus?
(1) Lateral pectoral nerve
(2) Musculocutaneous nerve
(3) Lateral root of median nerve
(4) Medial pectoral nerve

41. Which is not a correct statement?
(1) Iliacus muscle is inverted by femoral nerve and is hip flexor muscle
(2) Sartories is inserted at anterior surtace of tibia just inferomedial to tibial tuberosity
(3) Psoas major muscle is inverted by femoral nerve and is a hip flexor
(4) Rectus femoris is inserted at quadriceps femoris tendon and is hip flexor and knee extensor

42. Which is not true regarding facet joint of spine?
(1) Facet joint capsule is tight anteriorly and lax posteriorly
(2) Axial load during spine extension causes Injury to superior aspect of the capsule
(3) Facet joints are inverted by branches of dorsal primary ramus
(4) Thoracic facet joints are oriented 45° angle in horizontal plan

43. Which is not true regarding group Ia and II fibres?
(1) Myelinated sensory afferent fibres.
(2) Group Ia fibres convey phasic and tonic stretch information
(3) Group II fibres innervates static nuclear bag and chain fibres
(4) Group II fibres convey phasic changes in muscle length

44. Centre of gravity of adult human in the anatomical position is slightly?
(1) Anterior to L4 Vertebra
(2) Anterior to LS Vertebra
(3) Anterior to SI Vertebra
(4) Anterior to S2 Vertebra

45. The centre of gravity displaced to the highest level during which phase of gait cycle?
(1) Pre-swing
(2) Mid-stance
(3) Terminal-stance
(4) Mid-swing