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Model Questions and Answers on Obstetrics and Gynecological Nursing
1. Which one of the following factors does NOT put a woman at increased risk of obstetric complications?
(a) Both extremes of maternal age
(b) One previous Caesarean section
(c) A history of subfertility, with use of fertility drugs or assisted conception
(d) Family history of diabetes in a second-degree relative
2. The statements below refer to booking visit investigations—which is true?
(a) An ultrasound scan between 11 and 13+6 weeks should be offered.
(b) Screening for infections implicated in preterm labour, e.g. Chlamydia and bacterial vaginosis, are offered routinely.
(c) Best screening for chromosomal abnormalities includes AFP, oestriol and â-hCG as part of the combined test.
(d) Blood grouping is not performed until 28 weeks.
3. The Physiological changes that occur during pregnancy is
(a) Increase of blood volume by 100%
(b) White blood cell
(c) Cardiac output 40% decrease
(d) Peripheral resistance 50% increase
4. Screening versus diagnostic tests: which of the following is true?
(a) A screening test is performed on women with a ‘high risk’ to confirm or refute the possibility of a disorder
(b) A diagnostic test is available for all and gives a measure of the risk of being affected by a particular disorder
(c) Specificity is the probability that a subject who is negative will not have the condition.
(d) Sensitivity is the proportion of subjects with the condition classified as screen positive for the condition.
5. Which of the following is the Structural abnormalities identifiable as part of antenatal care:
(a) Preconceptual folic acid supplementation for 3 months (0.4 mg/day) reduces the incidence of neural tube defects and should be taken by all women considering pregnancy.
(b) Diaphragmatic hernias rarely result in the fetus having pulmonary hypoplasia.
(c) Fetal hydrops is common
(d) Cardiac anomalies occur in 3% of pregnancies.
6. A number of terms relating to concerns regarding fetal well being is
(a) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) can only be present if the fetus is small for dates
(b) Small for dates (small for gestational age, SGA)
(c) By definition, 10% of babies are below the tenth centile and 3% below the third, for a particular gestation.
(d) None of the above
7. Which statement is appropriate regarding Ultrasound monitoring of twin pregnancy:
(a) All twins should have serial ultrasound scans, as a minimum at 28, 32 and 36 weeks
(b) In twin–twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) the ‘donor’ twin gets volume overload.
(c) In TTTS, the ‘recipient’ twin is volume depleted and develops anaemia, IUGR and oligohydramnios
(d) Chorionicity is most accurately ascertained at the anomaly scan
8. Physiological change in the puerperium: which one of the following is false?
(a) Within 10 days the uterus is no longer palpable abdominally.
(b) The internal os of the cervix is closed by 3 days
(c) Menstruation is usually delayed by lactation, but occurs at about 6 weeks if the woman is not lactating.
(d) Bleeding usually stops within 10 days
9. The changes that occur during physiology of lactation is
(a) Prolactin from the posterior pituitary gland stimulates milk secretion
(b) Rapid declines in oestrogen and progesterone levels occur after birth.
(c) Oxytocin from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates ejection in response to nipple sucking
(d) None of the above
10. Postnatal contraception is usually started within?
(a) Contraception is usually started 1-2 weeks after delivery
(b) Contraception is usually started 3–4 weeks after delivery
(c) Contraception is usually started 4–6 weeks after delivery
(d) Contraception is usually started 7–8 weeks after delivery
11. Which of the statement is Maternal mortality:
(a) Maternal death is death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42 days of its cessation, from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management, but not from accidental or incidental causes.
(b) Late maternal death is when a woman dies from similar causes, but specifically in the third trimester
(c) ‘Direct’ deaths result from obstetric complications
(d) ‘Incidental’ deaths are those that would have occurred irrespective of pregnancy
12. Consent and confidentiality: which three of the following are true?
(a) Minor risks need not be discussed. Major risks must be discussed even if they are rare
(b) The doctor has a moral, professional, contractual and legal duty to maintain patient confidentiality.
(c) Details can be disclosed to a close relative, without the patients consent.
(d) Confidentiality can be breached in exceptional circumstances where the health and safety of others would otherwise be at risk.
13. Which of the following is third generation intrauterine device
(b) CuT 200
(c) CuT 380A
14. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with
(a) IgM antibodies
(c) Mast cells
(d) IgA antibodies
15. In a woman using an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) an intrauterine pregnancy occurs and the IUCD threads are visible, what is the reason to recommend removal of the device
(a) to prevent the risk of subsequent septic abortion and preterm labour
(b) to prevent congenital abnormality of the newborn
(c) to prevent postpartum haemorrhage
(d) to prevent perforation
16. Methods of prenatal testing for congenital abnormalities is:
(a) Nuchal translucency (the space between skin and soft tissue overlying the cervical spine), measured between 11 and 13+6 weeks, is a screening test for chromosomal abnormalities such as trisomy 21
(b) When the fetus has an open neural tube defect (NTD), maternal serum AFP levels are usually raised. As such, this can be used as a diagnostic test for NTD.
(c) Amniocentesis is safer than CVS before 12 weeks
(d) None of the above
17. The following are the changes that occurs in the uterus during pregnancy except
(a) uterine cavity enlarges by 500-1000 times
(b) body of the uterus enlages more than the fundus
(c) utero-placentak blood flow increases to about 500-600 ml/min
(d) during braxton Hicks contraction, there is stagnation of blood in the intervillus space
18. Number of antenatal visits during pregnancy should be minimum
(a) 4 times
(b) 8 times
(c) 12 times
(d) 16 times
19. Gestational age is evaluated from
(a) calculation from LMP
(b) height of the uterus
(c) counting from the date of ovulation
(d) counting from the date of fertilization
20. Absolute ( positive ) signs of pregnancy are
(a) abdominal enlargemet
(b) braxton Hicks contraction
(d) audible FHS
21. The celient feature of Braxton Hicks contraction
(a) regular & infrequent
(b) regular & spasmodic
(c) irregular & painless
(d) irregular & infrequent
22. Recommended approximate requirement of calcium for women weighing 50 kg during second half of pregnancy is
23. Induction of labour is less likely to be successful in all except
(a) Preterm pregnancy
(b) Elderly primigravida
(c) Prolonged retention pof IUD fetus
(d) Bishop’s score > 5
24. The process by which a viable product of conception is expelled by the mother is called
25. The following are the physilogic changes during late pregnancy except
(a) blood volume is increased
(b) cardiac output is increased
(c) arterial PO2 is decreased
(d) tidal volume is increased
26. The fully mature ovum measures about
(a) 120 microns
(b) 130 microns
(c) 140 microns
(d) 150 microns
27. Morula (12-16 cell stage )enters the uterine cavity on
(a) 2nd day
(b) 3rd day
(c) 4th day
(d) 5th day
28. Volume of blood in a mature placenta approximates
29. The amniotic fluid is completely changed and replaced in every
(a) 2 hours
(b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours
(d) 5 hours
30. The peak level of serum beta HCG in normal pregnancy is found between
(a) 7-7 weeks
(b) 8-10 weeks
(c) 12-16 weeks
(d) 37-40 weeks
31. Intrauterine pressure is highest in
(a) first stage of labour
(b) second stage of labour
(c) third stage of labour
(d) fourth stage of labour
32. Contraction stress test is used to detect
(b) fetal hypoxia
(c) placenta previa
(d) head compression
33. Study of fetal parts in first trimester is best done with least radiation hazard
(a) X- ra
(b) y (b) Pelvimetry
34. Jacquemier’s sign is
(a) bluish discolouration of vagina in early pregnancy
(b) softening of cervix
(c) regular painless contractions of garvid uterus
(d) nausea & vomiting in early pregnancy
35. The total calorie requirement during preganancy is
36. The moment in pregnancy when the pregnant woman starts to feel or perceive fetal movements is called
37. The vaccines contraindicated during preganacy
(d) all of the above
38. Causes of hydramnios are all except
(b) spina fida
(c) dabetes mellitus
39. Pregnancies should be strongly discontinued in a woman who has
(a) atrial septal defect
(b) patent ductus arteriosus
(c) eisenmenger syndrome
(d) rheumatic mitral stenosis
40. Regarding fetal moitoring by cardiotocography
(a) a sinusoidal FHR pattern is almost always associated with fetal hypoxia
(b) fetuses with congenital abnormalities always exhibit abnormal FHR patterns
(c) deceleration in the second stage is always pathological
(d) decreased base line variability may be due to drugs .
41. The karyotype of a patient with androgen sensitivity syndrome is
42. The best period of gestation to catty out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is
(a) 8-10 weeks
(b) 10-12 weeks
(c) 12-14 weeks
(d) 14-16 weeks
43. All are the high risk pregnancies associated with macrosomia except
(a) maternal obesity
(b) prolonged pregnancy
(c) previous history of large infant
(d) short stature
44. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of gestation with past history of delivering baby with down’s syndrome ?
(a) triple screen test
(c) chorionic villous biopsy
45. The first stage of labour is said to be completed
(a) when the membrane rupture
(b) when the cervix fully dilated(10cm)
(c) when active phase of albour begins
(d) with the appearance of bearing down efforts
46. The first step to be done when head of the baby is delivered
(a) clearing the air passage
(b) placing the baby on a tray
(c) apgar rating
(d) clamping the umbilical cord
47. The average blood volume loss during normal delivery is approximately
48. When the maximum diameter of the head stretches the vulval outlet without any recession of the head even after the contraction is over is called
49. The duration of second stage of labour in primigravida mother is
(a) 12-14 hours
(b) 14-16 hours
(c) 16-18 hours
(d) 18-20 hours
50. Delivery of the head controlled by one hand
(a) to maintain flexion
(b) to prevent early extension of the head
(c) to prevent perineal and vulval tears
(d) all the above
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