NEET Zoology Question Papers
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Question Papers of NEET Zoology
1. In which type of blastula, blastocoel is filled with yolk ?
(1) Periblastula
(2) Coeloblastula
(3) Amphiblastula
(4) Discoblastula
2. Formation of archenteron occurs in which of the following stages of development ?
(1) Blastulation
(2) Organogeny
(3) Gastrulation
(4) Cleavage
3. Notochord develops from
(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm
(4) Mesenchyme
4. First cleavage in Hen’s egg is
(1) Meridional
(2) Equitorial
(3) Vertical
(4) Latitudinal
5. Which of the following is not a function of Placenta in mammals ?
(1) Exchange of substance through ultra-filtration
(2) Storage of fat, glycogen and iron
(3) It participate in the metabolism of protein
(4) It participate in fat metabolism
6. The ‘“hypoblast” in chick development is formed of —
(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Ectoderm and Mesoderm
(4) Endoderm
7. In Hen’s embryo lumber and caudal flexures develop in —
(1) 48 hrs stage
(2) 36 hrs stage
(3) 72 hrs stage
(4) 96 hrs stage
8. After how many days of incubation in chick, beak formation takes place
(1) 4th day
(2) 5th day
(3) 6th day
(4) 14th day
9. Which membrane develop from Somatopleure ?
(1) Amnion and Chorion
(2) Chorion and Allantois
(3) Yolk sac and Allantois
(4) Amnion and Allantois
10. Which extra embryonic membrane in chick embryo act as shock absorber and protect it from dessication ?
(1) Yolk sac
(2) Chorion
(3) Amnion
(4) Allantois
11. Function of excretion in embryo of chick is performed by —
(1) Amnion
(2) Chorion
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Allantois
12. The formation of gray crescent after fertilization in frog’s egg causes change in symmetry from
(1) radial to bilateral symmetry
(2) bilateral to radial symmetry
(3) radial to biradial symmetry
(4) biradial to radial symmetry
13. During frog development, 32 blastomeres (16 upper micromeres and 16 lower macromeres) are formed because of —
(1) third cleavage
(2) fourth cleavage
(3) fifth cleavage
(4) eighth cleavage
14. During gastrutation in frog development spreading of presumptive ectoderm is called —
(1) Epiboly
(2) Invagination
(3) Involution
(4) Convergence
15. In frog, future kidney is formed from
(1) Hypomere
(2) Epimere
(3) Mesomere
(4) Proctodaeum
16. Albinism is caused by a autosomal recessive mutation. For a couple with normal skin pigmentation, the first child was an albino, then what would be the probability of their second child to be an albino ?
(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%
17. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?
(1) Phenyl-ketonuria
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Colour-blindness
(4) Skin colour in human
18. Which of the following induces the formation of pyrimidine dimer ?
(1) Alkylating agent
(2) UV-rays
(3) Base-analogies
(4) Acridine-dyes
19. Colour-blindness is X-linked recessive disorder. From a normal father and carrier mother, what will be the probability that born child is colourblind ?
(1) ¼
(2) 2/4
(3) ¾
(4) 4/4
20. Which of the following is the example of point mutation ?
(1) Thalessemia
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Sickle Cell Anaemia
(4) Down Syndrome
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21. In birds, butterflies and moths, sex determination mechanism is
(1) XX —XY
(2) XX —XO
(3) ZZ-ZW
(4) X/A ratio
22. The red green colour blindness is caused due to :
(1) The recessive gene located in X-chromosome
(2) The dominant gene located in X-chromosome
(3) The recessive gene located in Y-chromosome
(4) The dominant gene located in Y-chromosome
23. Which of the following describes the ability of a single-gene to have multiple phenotypic effects ?
(1) Epistasis
(2) Multiple allelism
(3) Pleiotrophism
(4) Polygenic inheritance
24. Duchene Muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked recessive disorder is common in boys, girls can be carrier and mildly affected. Why ?
(1) Sex-linked traits are less common in female.
(2) Female must have 2 genes to express such Y-linked recessive disorder.
(3) Non-dysjunction of chromosomes is common in males. Than compared to females.
(4) Gene for this disorder is carried by Y-chromosomes
25. In an individual 4 genes P, Q, R, S are present on a chromosome. What would be the correct order of these genes on chromosome if distance between genes are :
P—Q=9cm, P—R=5cm
P-S=12cm, Q-R=4cm
Q-S=3cm, R-S=7cm
(1) P-Q-R-S
(2) P-R-Q-S
(3) P-S-R-Q
(4) P-S-Q-R
26. The type of mutation which produce stop codon in mRNA is
(1) Frame-shift-mutation
(2) Missense-mutation
(3) Non-sense mutation
(4) Silent mutation
27. Composite Interval Mapping (CIM) method for QTL was proposed by :
(1) Lander and Botstein
(2) Zeng
(3) Jansen and Stam
(4) None of these
28. Kappa particles are associated with :
(1) Drosophila
(2) Paramoecium – Killer strain
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chlamydomonas
29. In the Drosophila, if the X-chromosomal and autosomal set ratio (X : A ratio) is 0.75, then what would be the phenotype for this ratio ?
(1) Female
(2) Inter-sex
(3) Male
(4) Super-male
30. In Mendelian dihybrid cross two pure-line plants were crossed to produce F1-generations with AaBb genotype, then what proportion of F, progeny will have AaBb genotype considering Law of Segregation and Independent Assortment ?
(1) 3/16
(2) 9/16
(3) 1/16
(4) 4/16
31. A euploid female with one X-chromosome (Turner syndrome) result from
(1) Trisomy of Autosome
(2) Monosomy of Allosome
(3) Nullisomy of Allosome
(4) Trisomy of Allosome
32. Two plants with mutant phenotype (white flower) crossed and purple flower in F1 generation were obtained. After self-crossing the F1 plants purple and white flowers obtained in the ratio of 9: 7 in F2 generations. Find out the interaction in this cross.
(1) Complementary gene interactions
(2) Recessive epistasis
(3) Dominant epistasis
(4) Collaborating gene-interaction
33. Which of the following statement is incorrect about mutation ?
(1) Transgenic animals can be produced by chemical mutagens.
(2) Mutation play a important role in evolution.
(3) Mutation can induce deleterious effect on normal gene sequence.
(4) Mutation may or may not produce noticeable phenotype.
34. Coat colour in rabbit is controlled by 4. different alleles with Independent Assortment. Find out possible genetypes in diploid population of rabbit.
(1) 15
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 4
35. Stanely Miller in his experiment synthesised simple amino acid using
(1) H2, O2, N2 and H2O
(2) CH4, CN, H2 and O2
(3) H2, NH3, CH4 and water vapour
(4) NH3, CH4, O2 and water vapour
36. ‘Which one among the following is not included in Darwin’s theory of natural selection ?
(1) Enormous fertility in organism
(2) Use and disuse of organs
(3) Survival of the Fittest
(4) Struggle for Existence
37. Book “Philosophic Zoologque” was published in 1809. Who was the author of this book ?
(1) Darwin
(2) Weisman
(3) Mendel
(4) Lamarck
38. Mutation theory of Hugo De Vries was based on study of which plant ?
(1) Pea
(2) Algae
(3) Evening Primrose
(4) Wheat
39. Fossils of dropping of animals or faecal matter are called —
(1) Coprolites
(2) Micro-fossils
(3) Bioclast
(4) Gastroliths
40. Which Nobel laureate suggested Radioactive carbon method for dating of rocks and fossils ?
(1) W.F. Libby
(2) Boltwood
(3) Welden
(4) Haldane
41. Which Era was known as golden period for Dinosaurs ?
(1) Proterozoic era
(2) Palaeozoic era
(3) Mesozoic era
(4) Coenozoic era
42. Which period is called as the “Age of Fishes” ?
(1) Ordovician period
(2) Devonian period
(3) Silurian period
(4) Cambrian period
43. The fossil of Java-man were found in 1891 on the bank of Solo River in Eastern. Java by
(1) Dubois
(2) Davidson Black
(3) Leakey
(4) Robert Broom
44. Cro-Magnon Man lived in
(1) Asia
(2) America
(3) Australia
(4) Europe
45. In study zoogeographical distribution of animals, Wallace’s line does not runs between
(1) Philippines and Moluccas in north
(2) Borneo and Celebes in South-We
(3) Bali and Lombok in South
(4) Sumatra and New Guinea in Centre
46. India is located under following zoogeographical realm :
(1) Palaearctic realm
(2) Ethiopean realm
(3) Oriental realm
(4) Neotropical realm
47. Who introduced the lead (Pb) method of dating geological strata ?
(1) Boltwood in 1907
(2) W.F. Libby
(3) Arkell in 1956
(4) Sir Charles Lyell
48. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belongs’ to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.7
49. The groups of local populations of a widely distributed species, which exhibit regular and gradual stepwise phenotypic modifications throughout its geographical range is called :
(1) Demes
(2) Geographical races
(3) Ecotypes
(4) Clines
50. Aardvark, Nautilus, Tuatara, Koala and Red Panda are examples of
(1) Fossils
(2) Connecting links
(3) Living fossils
(4) Extinct species