Microbiology Quiz

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Quiz on Microbiology

1. Which of the following viruses is associated with erythematous eruption of the cheeks (Slapped cheek) ?
(1) Parvo virus
(2) Erythro virus
(3) Dependo virus
(4) TC polyoma virus

2. What is the preferred clinical specimen for detection of BK polyoma virus by election microscopy ?
(1) Brain tissue
(2) Urine
(3) Blood
(4) None of the above

3. Most common infection in transplant recipients :
(1) Cytomegalo virus
(2) Epstein Barr virus
(3) Hepatitis virus
(4) Polyoma virus

4. HHV-8 is associated with all, except :
(1) Kaposi Sarcoma
(2) Adult T Cell leukemia
(3) Castleman’s disease
(4) Primary effusion lymphoma

5. Entero virus species that is causing conjuctivitis :
(1) Entero virus 68
(2) Entero virus 69
(3) Entero virus 70
(4) Entero virus 71

6. Elution is medicited by :
(1) Haemagglutination
(2) Neuraminidase
(3) Matrix protein
(4) Ribonucleoprotein

7. Warthin Finkeldy cells are seen in:
(1) Mumps
(2) Measles
(3) Rubella
(4) Adenovirus

8. Viral hemorrhagic fever which have occurred in India :
(1) Ebola
(2) Crimean congo hemorrhage fever
(3) Yellow fever
(4) Marburg

9. Which anti-rabies vaccine is given in India ?
(1) Duck cell vaccine
(2) Chick fibroblast vaccine
(3) HDCV
(4) Sheep brain vaccine

10. Which is the dangerous hepatitis virus during pregnancy ?
(1) Hepatitis A
(2) Hepatitis B
(3) Hepatitis D
(4) Hepatitis E

11. Cryoglobulinemia is associated with :
(1) HAV
(2) HBV
(3) HCV
(4) HDV

12. Most sensitive test for HIV infection
(1) Western blot
(2) ELISA
(3) Agglutination
(4) CFT

13. All are true about SARS except :
(1) Not seen in India
(2) Spread by droplet
(3) Diagnosed by PCR
(4) Caused by SARS Cov

14. True about Ebola virus :
(1) Flavi virus
(2) Icosahedral symmetry
(3) Specific treatment is available
(4) Spreads by direct contact with blood or body fluids

15. Prions are:
(1) Infectious proteins
(2) Made up to virus particles
(3) It is a nuclear material
(4) can be cultured

16. Rota virus is detected by :
(1) Antigen in stool
(2) Antibody in serum
(3) Demonstration of virus
(4) Stool culture

17. Following are the types of corona virus EXCEPT :
(1) MERS – CoV
(2) SARS – CoV
(3) BK and JC Virus
(4) NL63 —- New Haven Corona Virus

18. Which of the following protozoa belongs to phylum Euglenozoa ?
(1) Leishmania Species
(2) Entamoeba Species
(3) Cryptosporidium Species
(4) Plasmodium Species

19. Which of the following protozoa belongs to phylum Apicomplexa ?
(1) Giardia Species
(2) Trichomonas Species
(3) Plasmodium Species
(4) Entamoeba Species

20. Parasite which may be transmitted by sexual contact is :
(1) Trypanosoma cruzi
(2) Trichomonas vaginalis
(3) Trypanosoma brucei
(4) Ascaris

21. Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with chronic infection of :
(1) Paragonious westermani
(2) Fasciola hepatica
(3) Clonorchis sinensis
(4) Schistosoma haematobium

22. Human being acts as intermediate host in the life cycles of following parasites except :
(1) Plasmodium falciparum
(2) Toxoplasma gondii
(3) Taenia solium
(4) Echinococcus granulosus

23. Presence of ingested erythrocytes is characteristic of :
(1) Entamoeba histolytica
(2) Entamoeba coli
(3) Endolimax nana
(4) Iodamoeba buetschlit

24. Naegleria fowleri causes –
(1) Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis
(2) Liver abscess
(3) Amoebic dysentery
(4) All of the above

25. The characteristic feature of pus of amoebic liver abscess is :
(1) Anchovy sauce pus
(2) Green coloured pus
(3) Thin blue pus
(4) None of the above

26. The causative agent of chaga’s disease is :
(1) Trypanosoma brucei
(2) Trypanosoma cruzi
(3) Toxoplasma gondii
(4) Leishmania tropica

27. The causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis in India is :
(1) Leishmania tropica
(2) L. donovani
(3) Trypanosoma cruzi
(4) None of the above

28. Gametocytes of which plasmodium sp. are sickle shaped ?
(1) Plasmodium Vivax
(2) Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Plasmodium malariae
(4) Plasmodium Ovale

29. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used to diagnose :
(1) Trichuriasis
(2) Trypanosomiasis
(3) Toxoplasmosis
(4) None of the above

30. The most common method used to demonstrate the oocysts of cryptosporidium parvum in stool specimen is :
(1) Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain
(2) Gram stain
(3) Hematoxylin — eosin stain
(4) None of the above

31. Which of the following parasites is the largest protozoa ?
(1) Entamoeba histolytrea
(2) Giardia lamblia
(3) Balantidium coli
(4) None of the above

32. Which of the following parasite is/are associated with HIV disease ?
(1) Necator americanus
(2) Microsporidia sp.
(3) Wulchereria Bancrofti
(4) None of the above

33. The larval form of Echinococcus granulosis is named as :
(1) Cysticercus cellulose
(2) Cysticercus bovis
(3) Hydatid cyst
(4) None of the above

34. Which skin test is useful for diagnosis of hydatid disease ?
(1) Casoni test
(2) Dick test
(3) Schick test
(4) Tuberculin test

35. In which of the following trematodes, the mode of infection is penetration through skin ?
(1) Fasciola Sp.
(2) Clonorchis Sp.
(3) Heterophyes Sp.
(4) Schistosoma Sp.

36. Larva currens is caused by
(1) Ascariasis
(2) Cutaneous larva migrans
(3) Strongyloidiasis
(4) Toxocara canis

37. Causative agent of calabar swelling is :
(1) Dracunculus medinensis
(2) Wuchereria bancrofti
(3) Brugia malayi
(4) Loaloa

38. Which of the following infection is eradicated from India ?
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti
(2) Brugia malayi
(3) Dracunculus medinensis
(4) Ascaris lumbricoides

39. Which of the following microfilariae is sheathed ?
(1) Mansonella persantans
(2) Onchocerea Volvulus
(3) Brugia malayi
(4) Mansonella streptocerca

40. Which of the following microfilaria comes to peripheral blood in the day time ?
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti
(2) Brugia Malayi
(3) Loa loa
(4) Brugia timori

41. True about anisakiasis is
(1) Transmitted by ingestion of larvae found in salt water fish and squid
(2) Transmitted by ingestion of adult worm
(3) Marine mammals serve as intermediate host
(4) Transmitted by ingestion of meat containing eggs

42. Cutaneous larva migrans is mainly caused by
(1) Ancylostoma brasiliensis
(2) Necator americanus
(3) Ancylostoma duodenale
(4) Strongyloides stercoralis

43. Visceral larva migrans is caused by
(1) Ancylostoma duodenale
(2) Necator americanus
(3) Ancylostoma caninum
(4) Toxocara canis

44. All of the following nematodes are Oviparous, except –
(1) Round worm
(2) Strongyloides
(3) Hookworm
(4) Enterobius

45. Advantages of saline mount are all, except :
(1) Useful in the detection of trophozoites and cysts of protozoa and eggs and larvae of helminths.
(2) Nuclear details of cysts and helminthic eggs and larvae are better visualized
(3) Motility of trophozoites and larvae can be seen in acute infection.
(4) Bile staining property can be appreciated