General Medicine MCQ
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MCQ on General Medicine
1) Which of the following class of medicines has been linked to the occurrence of hip fractures in the elderly?
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
D) Atypical antipsychotics
2) Patients taking which of the following drugs should avoid drinking grapefruit juice?
3) Why is it necessary to co administer Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) with isoniazid?
A) Vitamin B6 requirements are higher in tuberculosis.
B) Isoniazid causes decarboxylation of gamma-carboxyl groups in Vitamin K – dependent enzymes.
C) Isoniazid interacts with pyridoxal phosphate.
D) Isoniazid causes conversion of homocysteine to cystathionine.
4) The triad of portal vein thrombosis, hemolysis and pancytopenia suggests of the following diagnosis?
A) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
B) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
C) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
5) The most common cause of high serum calcium in cancer is
A) Ectopic production of parathyroid hormone
B) Direct destruction of bone by tumor cells
C) Local production of tumour necrosis factor and IL-6 by bony metastasis
D) Production of parathyroid hormone-like substance
6) Poncet’s disease refers to?
A) Polyarthritis in disseminated tuberculosis
B) Anterior uveitis in AIDS
C) Posterior uveitis in disseminated tuberculosis
D) Posterior uveitis in AIDS
7) As compared with deep-vein thrombosis in non-pregnant persons, deep-vein thrombosis in pregnant women occurs most frequently in which leg and with what risk of embolic complications?
A) Left leg, with a greater risk
B) Left leg, without a greater risk
C) Right leg, with a greater risk
D) Right leg, without a greater risk
8) Which one of the following consequences has been observed with rapid infusion or administration of large volumes of 0.9% saline?
A) Frequent urination
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Renal Vasodilatation
9) Which of the following substances may interfere with gastrointestinal absorption of thyroxine?
D) Vitamin D
10) Which one of the following statements is true regarding risk of relapse in minimal-change disease?
A) Relapses are common and are more likely in patients 40 years of age or older
B) Relapses are common and are more likely in patients younger than 40 years of age
C) Relapses are uncommon but are more likely in patients 40 years of age or older
D) Relapses are uncommon but are more likely in patients younger than 40 years of age
11) Percussion for splenic dullness is accomplished with following techniques except
A) Nixon method
B) Castell method
C) Middleton maneuver
D) Barkun method
12) Aplastic anemia has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT
C) Non-steroidal inflammatory drugs
D) Parvovirus B19 infection
13) Hemolytic-Uremic syndrome is characterised by all except-
A) Acute renal failure
B) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
14) Clubbing of the digits is NOT a sign of?
A) Crohn’s disease
B) Bacterial endocarditis
15) Helicobacter pylori colonization is implicated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) Duodenal ulcer
B) Gastric adenocarcinoma
C) Gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma
D) Gastro esophageal reflux disease
16) All of the following are clinical manifestations of Ascaris lumbricoides infection EXCEPT
A) Asymptomatic carriage
B) Fever, headache, photophobia, nuchal rigidly and eosinophilia
C) Nonproductive cough and pleurisy with eosinophilia
D) Right upper quadrant pain and fever
17) Which of the following antibiotics has the weakest association with the development of Clostridium difficile-associateddisease?
18) Which one of the following choices is one of the major risk factors for invasive candidiasis?
A) Acute necrotizing pancreatitis
B) Central venous catheters
C) Hematologic malignant disease
19) Which one of the following drug classes is the mainstay of pharmacologic treatment of eosinophilic esophagitis?
B) Leukotriene modifiers
C) Mast-cell stabilizers
D) Topical glucocorticoids
20) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the clinical manifestations of IgG4-related disease?
A) Constitutional symptoms are present in most cases.
B) Mass lesions are uncommon.
C) Muscle involvement has generally not been reported.
D) Retroperitoneal involvement occurs in 40% of affected patients.
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21) For diagnosis of coronary microvascular dysfunction, coronary flow reserve should be:
22) Beta blockers do not:
A) Decrease adrenergic drive
B) Decrease QTc
C) Increase QT dispersion
D) Improve LV filling dynamics
23) Classification criteria for metabolic syndrome includes all EXCEPT
A) Dysglycemia (Fasting Blood Glucose >200mg/dL)
B) High cholesterol (serum total cholesterol >200mg/dL)
C) High Triglycerides (serum TG>150)
D) Low HDL (<40 in males and <50 in females)
24) On MRI “Pituitary Bright Spot” is due to-
A) Pituitary stalk
B) Posterior pituitary
C) Anterior pituitary
D) None of the above
25) Which of the following congenital heart defects causes fixed splitting of the second heart sound?
A) Atrial septal defect
B) Epstein’s anomaly
C) Patent foramen ovale
D) All above
26) All the following drugs can cause eosinophilic pneumonia EXCEPT
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
27) Which one of the following choices is a new prokinetic agent for functional dyspepsia being evaluated in phase 3 trials in western countries?
28) Which drug acts on late sodium current?
29) Lorcaserin is a:
A) Serotonin/noradrenalin reuptake inhibitor
B) Serotonin 2C receptor agonist
C) CB1 receptor antagonist
D) Gastric and pancreatic lipase inhibitor
30) Hyperuricemia is an independent risk factor for:
A) Systemic hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
31) Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus is treated by?
B) Thiazide diuretic
D) All of the above
32) All the following are pulmonary manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) EXCEPT:
B) Progressive pulmonary fibrosis
C) Pulmonary haemorrhage
D) Diaphragmatic dysfunction with loss of lung volumes
33) From which stage of sleep are the parasomnias somnambulism and night terrors most likely to occur?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3 / 4 (slow-wave sleep)
D) Rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep
34) Which of the following interstitial lung disease is not associated with smoking?
A) Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis
B) Respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial disease
C) Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis
D) Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia
35) Which one of the following choices represents one of the cancers that have most commonly been associated with membranous nephropathy?
A) Liver cancer
B) Pancreatic cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Thyroid cancer
36) Carbapenam group of antibiotics are ineffective in –
A) Extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL)
B) NDM1 producing bacteria
C) Klebsiella pneumonia
37) Which one of the following statements about the treatment of tuberculosis is true?
A) In addition to drug-resistance mutations, multiple Mycobacterium tuberculosis genetic factors appear to influence treatment outcomes.
B) Studies have shown limited penetration by rifampin into caseous foci.
C) The 6-month standard course of therapy for drug-susceptible disease is longer than necessary for some patients.
D) At least three M. tuberculosis subpopulations with different intrinsic drug susceptibilities are thought to exist.
38) Which one of the following agents is generally recommended for the treatment of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy?
B) Low-molecular-weight heparin
C) Unfractionated heparin
39) Which of the following in not true regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH) and Vitamin D?
A) Vitamin D deficiency causes hyperparathyroidism
B) PTH is needed for 1-hyroxylation in the liver
C) Magnesium is needed for PTH secretion
D) PTH is needed for 1-hydroxylation in the kidneys
40) All of the following are examples of advanced glycation end products EXCEPT:
B) Glycated albumin
D) Salivary glycosylation
41) Which of the following is considered as fourth component of glycemic control?
A) Glycemic variability
C) Glycated albumin
D) Post-prandial plasma glucose
42) Which drug should be avoided in heart failure?
D) All of the above
43) Significant allergic reactions like angioedema, anaphylaxis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are seen with:
44) Subclinical hypothyroidism is defined as elevated TSH with:
A) Normal T4
B) Low T4
C) Low FT4
D) Normal FT4
45) Which of the following statements about alcoholic liver disease is not true?
A) Alcoholic cirrhosis is often characterized by diffuse fine scarring with small regenerative nodules
B) Ratio of AST to ALT is often higher than 2
C) Serum aspartate aminotransferase levels are often greater than 1000U/L
D) Concomitant hepatitis C accelerates the development of alcoholic cirrhosis
46) All the following are potential side effects of Infliximab except:
A) Demyelinating disorders
B) Exacerbation of heart failure
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
47) What is the most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis?
A) Anterior uveitis
C) Inflammatory bowel disease
D) Third-degree heart block
48) All the following organisms have been implicated in reactive arthritis except
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Niesseria gonorrheae
C) Salmonella enteritidis
D) Shigela dysenteriae
49) Which one of the following clinical findings suggests an increased risk that a thyroid nodule is malignant?
A) Family history of auto-immune thyroiditis
B) Family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1.
C) Female sex
D) Focal uptake of 18 F- fluorodeoxyglucose by the thyroid
50) Which one of the following statements accurately describes ibrutinib?
A) It is an inhibitor of Bruton’s tyrosine kinase
B) It is an interleukin-2 receptor agonist
C) It is a monoclonal antibody directed against CD20
D) It is a phosphoinositide3-kinase inhibitor