Operations Management Interview Questions

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Operations Management Interview Questions

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Operations Management Questions and Answers

1. According to BCG-matrix ‘Dogs’ are characterised by:
(A) High market share and low industrial growth
(B) High demand and high growth rate
(C) Low market share and operate in industries with low growth rate
(D) Low market attractiveness and low market share

2. According to Glueck and Jauch the implementation of strategy involves:
(A) Leadership implementation, Resource allocation, Organizational structuring
(B) Organizational structuring, Hiring People, Resource allocation
(C) Resource allocation, Organizational structuring, Management Policies
(D) Leadership implementation, Resource allocation, Organizational structuring, Management Policies

3. Joint venture strategy is, when:
(A) The company joins hand with two of its competitors to augment/increase production
(B) The company just provides technology for a new business unit
(C) The company just markets the products of another company
(D) The company joins hand with another company to create and promote a new joint business entity

4. The business policy of a company involves formulation of which one of the following:
(A) Vision, mission and business objectives
(B) Vision and mission only
(C) Mission and business objectives
(D) Business objectives and corporate strategy

5. In divisional organizational structure the responsibility for achieving profit rests with:
(A) The Finance Vice-President of a division
(B) The Board of Management of a company
(C) The General Managers of individual divisions
(D) The CEO/President of the company

6. Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?
(A) Entrepreneurship
(B) Act of starting a new venture
(C) Intrapreneurship
(D) Offering new products by an existing company

7. Entrepreneurs can stimulate their own creativity and encourage it among workers by:
(A) Expecting and tolerating failure
(B) Avoiding problems
(C) Limiting rewards
(D) Not taking chances

8. Which stage of the creative process requires one to develop a solid understanding of the problem or decision?
(A) Investigation
(B) Preparation
(C) Illumination
(D) Verification

9. ……………………… is a graphical technique that encourages thinking on both sides of the brain, visually displays the various relationships among the ideas, and improves the ability to view a problem from many sides.
(A) Brainstorming
(B) Mind-mapping
(C) Prototyping
(D) Group think

10. The process of determining whether an entrepreneur’s idea is a viable foundation for creating a successful business is known as a/an:
(A) Business plan
(B) Strategic analysis
(C) Industry analysis
(D) Feasibility analysis

11. One of the following is not a right of consumer:
(A) The right to be protected from harmful products
(B) The right to be fairly priced
(C) The right to adequate information
(D) The right to be offered a choice that includes the products that consumers truly want

12. Hedonistic Calculus is given by:
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Kohlberg
(D) Carol Gilligan

13. ……………………… refers to strategic process involving stakeholder assessment to create long-term relationship with customers, while maintaining, supporting and enhancing the natural environment.
(A) Eco-strategy
(B) Green marketing
(C) Superfund authorization
(D) Recycle and reprocess management

14. Use of fossil fuels has led to substantial growth in global emissions of ……………………… and greenhouse effect, contributing to global warming.
(A) Sulphur dioxide
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide

15. Warranty is …………………….. .
(A) an assurance to replace the product
(B) a guarantee for performance
(C) an expression to make good the losses
(D) an assurance given to buyer that they will be compensated in case the product does not perform upto reasonable expectation

16. Which of the following statements about arbitration is true?
(A) Binding arbitration can lead to a trial if both parties are not satisfied with the decision
(B) The neutrality of arbiter is guaranteed by the selection process
(C) The process of arbitral follows the same rules as used in a court case
(D) Disputes are open to public view as soon as the involved parties agree to arbitration

17. Hiring permanent employees of another firm, who possess certain specialized skills on period basis to meet short term requirements means:
(A) Employee bonding
(B) Employee equity
(C) Employee leasing
(D) Employee parity

18. Fair wage is:
(A) Wage which is above the minimum wage but below the living wage
(B) Wage which is below the minimum wage but below the living wage
(C) Wage which is equal to minimum wage but above the living wage
(D) Wage which is above minimum wage and above the living wage

19. Agreement by a company to compensate executives with bonuses and benefits if they should be displaced by a merger or acquisition is termed as:
(A) Golden Handshake
(B) Golden Parachute
(C) Perks
(D) Fringe Benefits

20. Bars as method of performance appraisal refers to:
(A) Behaviour approval rationing system
(B) Behaviour anchored rating scale
(C) Behaviour adding to rationality scale
(D) Behaviour and rational system

Retail Management Project Coordinator
Facilities Management Program Management
Financial Management Managers
Incident Management Product Management
Stakeholder Management Team Leader
Marketing Management Managerial Round
People Management Project Management
Operation Management Managers
Sales Management

21. Balanced Score-card:
(A) is a technique to balance different business operations
(B) is a means of performance measurement that gives manager a chance to look at their company from the perspectives of internal and external customers, employees, and shareholders
(C) is scanning the environment to know environmental constraint
(D) is a balanced score obtained in various functional areas

22. What is the correct logical sequence in the Lavidge and Steiner model of attitude formation (Hierarchy of effects model of communication).
(A) Awareness-Liking-Knowledge-Preference-Conviction
(B) Unawareness-Awareness -Knowledge-Liking-Preference-Conviction
(C) Unawareness – Liking -Awareness -Knowledge -Preference-Conviction
(D) Unawareness-Awareness-Knowledge-Conviction-Liking-Preference

23. If a marketing researcher selects the most accessible population members, he or she would have selected the ………………… sampling method.
(A) Simple random
(B) Stratified random
(C) Judgement
(D) Convenience

24. Which of the following is a psychographic characteristic of a consumer?
(A) Age
(B) Lifestyle
(C) Occupation
(D) Economic Status

25. Amazon.com and Expedia.com are best described as ……………………. that sell products and services directly to final buyers via the Internet.
(A) Search engines
(B) Content sites
(C) Transaction sites
(D) e-tailers

26. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of personal selling?
(A) Prospecting
(B) Overcoming sales objections
(C) Designing and planting favourable company news in leading press (Newspapers)
(D) Salesmanship

27. Which of the following phenomena reflects the process of adoption of innovation by the market?
(A) Product differentiation
(B) Perceptual map
(C) Ausoff matrix
(D) Diffusion of products/services

28. The ability of a company to meet each customer’s requirements to prepare on a mass basis individually designed products, services, programs and communications is referred to as:
(A) Proactive customer service
(B) Individualisation
(C) Mass customization
(D) Competitive advantage

29. Of the following which one corresponds to fixed cost?
(A) Transportation charges
(B) Payments for raw material
(C) Labour costs
(D) Insurance premium on property

30. Typically increasing interest rates:
(A) discourage individuals from savings
(B) discourage corporate investments
(C) encourage corporate expansion
(D) encourage corporate borrowing

31. Capital employed is:
(A) Cash + Bank
(B) Shareholder’s funds + Long funds
(C) Cash + Assets
(D) Bank

32. The method used for reducing risk by using derivatives is called:
(A) Hedging
(B) Stock Index
(C) Currency swaps
(D) Interest rate swaps

33. The rate that currently paid for the delivery of a currency at future date is called:
(A) Forward discount
(B) Forward exchange rate
(C) Foreign exchange rate
(D) Cross rate

34. Combinations of firms having unrelated lines of business activities are called:
(A) Horizontal merger
(B) Vertical merger
(C) Conglomerate merger
(D) Forward merger

35. The full form of TRIPS is:
(A) Trade Related Intelligence and Property Rights
(B) Trade Related Investment and Personal Rights
(C) Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
(D) Trade Related Investment and Property Rights

36. An international compact signed in 1997 that calls for reduction in the emission of carbon dioxide and 5 other greenhouse gases is:
(A) Central American Free Trade Agreement
(B) Global Trade Negotiations
(C) Kyoto Protocol
(D) Environmental Superfund

37. GATT framework of multilateral international trade treaties has now graduated into:
(A) IMF
(B) NAFTA
(C) SAARC
(D) WTO

38. Letter of credit is an instrument to achieve the following:
(A) To realise payments for the export consignments
(B) To establish the credibility of the exporter among the foreign buyers
(C) To establish the brand value of the good supplied by exporter
(D) To establish credentials before the government authorities

39. Which of these is not a component of the international capital market?
(A) Foreign Exchange Market
(B) International Equity Market
(C) Euro Currency Market
(D) International Bond Market

40. The unbundling and repackaging of hard-to-trade financial assets into more liquid, negotiable and marketable financial instruments is called:
(A) Market Liquidity
(B) Securitization
(C) Bartering
(D) Arbitrage

41. If the demand for a good is unit elastic, the coefficient of elasticity of demand would be ……………………… .
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Infinity
(D) Less than zero

42. The effect of imports on the circular flow of income depends on:
(A) Outflow of income
(B) Inflow of income
(C) Composition of imports
(D) Quality of imports

43. The NNP is defined as:
(A) GNP + taxes
(B) GNP + depreciation
(C) GNP – depreciation
(D) GNP + taxes – subsidies

44. Which parameters are important in Phillips curve analysis?
(A) Inflation and money supply
(B) Inflation and unemployment
(C) Consumption and savings
(D) Saving and investment

45. Which of the following has overlooked the significance of interpersonal behaviour in work settings?
(A) Industrial Psychology
(B) Human Relations
(C) Scientific Management
(D) Modern Management

46. Perceptual organisation is determined by:
(A) Functional factors
(B) Mental set
(C) Physiological factors
(D) Attitudinal factors

47. Job involvement is a type of:
(A) Belief
(B) Value
(C) Attachment
(D) Attitude

48. Managerial Grid theory was advocated by:
(A) Robert House
(B) Blake and Mouton
(C) Hersey Blanchard
(D) Fielder

49. Which of the following assumes that effective communication forms an intrinsic factor of effective work and efficient problem solving?
(A) Persuasion approach
(B) Innovative and creative approach
(C) Problem solving approach
(D) Communication event approach

50. Which of the following is not usually a group incentive plan?
(A) Halsey incentive plan
(B) Priestman bonus plan
(C) Rucker incentive plan
(D) Towre’s incentive plan