Geography Previous Year Questions and Answers

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Previous Year Questions and Answers on Geography

1. The concept of ‘comparative advantage’ provides an understanding of ………………. .
(A) Regional specialisation
(B) Locating plants near raw material sources
(C) Lower wage rates in a developed country
(D) High market demand for products

2. According to Von-Thunen, when production plus transport costs equals the value of the commodity at the market, the farmer is at ………………… .
(A) Economic margin of cultivation
(B) Economic rent
(C) Locational rent
(D) Spatial margin of profitability

3. Which of the following tertiary activities is the world’s largest industry in terms of jobs and total value generated ?
(A) Retail
(B) Information Technology
(C) Stock Market
(D) Tourism

4. Which of the following is not a type of shifting cultivation ?
(A) Milpa
(B) Chitemene
(C) Ladang
(D) Maquiladorus

5. According to Mackinder’s Heartland Theory the ‘Pivot area’ is termed as ……………….. .
(A) Inner crescent
(B) Outer crescent
(C) Insular crescent
(D) Middle crescent

6. Toponym means ………………… .
(A) Region
(B) Area
(C) Space
(D) Place

7. ‘Relocation diffusion’ takes place ……………… .
(A) when acceptance of information about an information spreads through society
(B) geographical transfer of culture traits by movements of people across space
(C) when expansion of culture affects uniformly in areas outward from source region
(D) cultural development in different places

8. A good indicator of social status is ………………. .
(A) commuting to CBD
(B) ethnic composition
(C) number of automobile users
(D) number of persons per room per housing unit

9. Mixing and adaptation of different cultures is known as ………………. .
(A) Interaction
(B) Assimilation
(C) Aculturation
(D) Amalgamation

10. Activities in the region which produce goods and services for export are called as ……………….. .
(A) Non-basic activities
(B) Basic activities
(C) Local administration
(D) Bakery

11. Which one of the following is not the part of Dudley Stamp’s scheme of macro-level regionalization of India ?
(A) The mountain rim
(B) The Gangetic plain
(C) The peninsula
(D) The coastal plains

12. The activity that involves the acceptance of clearly defined system of objectives to frame the overall policies is called ……………….. .
(A) Political economy
(B) Development
(C) Planning
(D) Regionalization

13. Production of ………………… is included in new agricultural policy of 2000, described as ‘Rainbow Revolution’.
(A) Fruits and Vegetables
(B) Food grains
(C) Commercial crops
(D) Fisheries

14. The optimal development of local people by the local government by developing the local resources is termed as ……………… .
(A) Rural development
(B) Remote area development
(C) Eco-development
(D) Regional development

15. Which one of the following pairs of Valley National Park and State is not correctly matched ?
(A) Pin Valley — Himachal Pradesh
(B) Neora Valley — Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Valley of — Uttarakhand Flowers
(D) Wayanad — Kerala

16. Which one of the following groups of state shows correct descending order of density of population (per sq. km.) as per 2011 census ?
(A) Kerala, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal
(D) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala and Uttar Pradesh

17. Which of the following two districts from Maharashtra appear in the list of top 10 in India recording negative growth rate of population as per 2011 census ?
(A) Mumbai Suburban and Ratnagiri
(B) Mumbai City and Sindhudurg
(C) Mumbai City and Ratnagiri
(D) Sindhudurg and Ratnagiri

18. Which of the following states has recorded second lowest literacy rate in India as per 2011 census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Bihar

19. Arrange the following hills from South to North in locational sequence :
(a) Nallamalai Hills
(b) Dafla Hills
(c) Javadi Hills
(d) Ramgarh Hills
Codes : Choose the correct option
(A) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(B) (a), (d), (b), (c)
(C) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(D) (d), (b), (c), (a)

20. In GIS Topology describes …………. .
(A) how objects are connected with reference to their co-ordinates
(B) how objects are connected to one another independent of their coordinates
(C) how grid cells are set up adjacent to one another
(D) how grid cells are contained within a larger raster data model

21. On a very small scale map, cities would likely to be shown as ………….. .
(A) Points
(B) Polygon
(C) Individual lines
(D) Grid cells

22. If the data are skewed which of the following measure of central tendency you will recommend ?
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Average
(D) Mode

23. The information (data) related to sea surface elevation will be available from ……………….. Indian satellite.
(A) SARAL
(B) GSAT-7
(C) IRNSS-1A
(D) RISAT-1

24. Assertion (A) : The continent of Africa does not have long and lofty fold mountain system.
Reason (R) : Plate boundaries around the continent of Africa are mostly divergent in nature.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

25. The term “attrition” indicates :
(A) Erosion of a platform by moving sediment
(B) Reduction of size of a particle in transit
(C) Disintegration of a rock
(D) A core stone as a product of chemical weathering

26. The term “bergschrund” is associated with …………………….. processes.
(A) Coastal
(B) Aeolian
(C) Fluvial
(D) Glacial

27. Which of the following scientists is also credited for the concept of isostasy ?
(A) McGee
(B) Karl Gilbert
(C) Dutton
(D) Maj. Powell

28. A shadow zone of the earthquake waves occurs on the surface of the earth because :
(A) All the earthquake waves get absorbed in this zone
(B) All the earthquake waves are absorbed by the mantle
(C) P waves are refracted and S waves are absorbed by the mantle
(D) S waves are refracted and P waves are absorbed by the mantle

29. Relative humidity increase when :
(A) The temperature decreases
(B) The temperature increases
(C) Wind velocity decreases
(D) Wind velocity increases

30. The driving mechanism of global climate change is referred to as ………………… .
(A) Radiative forcing
(B) Greenhouse effect
(C) Ozone depletion
(D) Melting of snow

31. The equatorial regions receive very high amount of rainfall because of :
(1) Nearness to storm tracks
(2) Closeness to warm water
(3) Year round instability of atmosphere
(4) Inversion of CT airmasses
(A) (1), (2) and (4)
(B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) (1), (3) and (4)

32. Which of the following is not true for the summer monsoon over northern hemisphere as a system of winds ?
(A) A system, marked with seasonal wind shift, caused by differential heating of the land and the sea.
(B) Winds that are largely confined to the tropics i.e. the region up to 20°N.
(C) Summer monsoon winds are the resultant deflections of southeast trades due to earth’s rotation.
(D) Summer monsoon approach the land from northeasterly direction.

33. The layers between the tropopause and the lower thermosphere are commonly referred to as …………….. atmosphere.
(A) Middle
(B) Lower
(C) Upper
(D) Topper

34. Which of the following is considered as a passive soil forming factors ?
(A) Parent rock
(B) Climate
(C) Time
(D) Biota

35. Photic zone means :
(A) The layer of ocean where all biological life is located.
(B) The zone where only coral reefs are located.
(C) The layer of ocean upto which sufficient light penetrates
(D) The layer in which photosynthesis is not possible

36. Which is the important driving force for ocean current movement ?
(A) Ocean surface water density
(B) Ocean water temperature change
(C) Prevailing winds
(D) Salinity

37. Corals predominantly occur in low to mid latitudes because of :
(A) High rainfall
(B) Hot and humid climatic conditions
(C) Suitable temperature conditions
(D) Suitable salinity conditions

38. Which one of the following is referred to as the producer in marine ecosystem ?
(A) Phytoplankton
(B) Zooplankton
(C) Fungi
(D) Small fish

39. The Orthographic and Stereographic projections were designed by :
(A) Thales
(B) Eratosthenes
(C) Hipparchus
(D) Aneximander

40. “The nature does not drive man along a particular road, but it offers a number of opportunities from among which man is free to select” is related to :
(A) Determinism
(B) Neo-determinism
(C) Possibilism
(D) Stop and Go Determinism

41. The landscapes reflects two primal needs of man “Prospect and Refuge” was advocated by :
(A) Appleton
(B) Samuels
(C) Johnston
(D) Ralph

42. Who has divided the Cosmography into Uranography and Geography ?
(A) Hettner
(B) Blache
(C) Humboldt
(D) Davis

43. According to Rank size rule, if the population of the largest city is 15,00,000, then the population of the fourth largest city would be :
(A) 3,00,000
(B) 3,75,000
(C) 5,00,000
(D) 7,50,000

44. Who is associated with the statements given below :
(i) Migration occurs in small steps
(ii) Most migrants go to short distance
(iii) Long distance migrants go to urban areas.
(A) Tadora
(B) Everett Lee
(C) Zelinsky
(D) Revenstein

45. Maximum population of the world resides in ………………………. latitude.
(A) 20—40°N
(B) 20—40°S
(C) 40—60°N
(D) 30—60°S

46. In the context of population, which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Europe is ‘Aged Population’ Continent
(B) China is the most populous country in the world
(C) India and China support 50% of the world’s population
(D) Africa has the world’s highest fertility rate

47. A primary (main) road intersected at right angle by series of secondary roads, parallel to one another would develop …………………………. type of rural settlement pattern.
(A) Grid
(B) Crucified
(C) Herring bone
(D) Angular

48. In the south eastern USA ‘Specialised horticulture and olericulture’ is called ………………. .
(A) Conuco
(B) Truck farming
(C) Chiltenene
(D) Tavy

49. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Milpa — Central America
(B) Caingin — Philippines
(C) Podu — India
(D) Berbecho — Thailand

50. When production increased in comparison to the quantity of cost elements is called :
(A) Constant return to scale
(B) Economies of the scale
(C) Diseconomies of the scale
(D) Average cost curve