Pharmacology Quiz
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Quiz on Pharmacology
1. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can cause seizures?
(1) Procainamide
(2) Disopyramide
(3) Lidocaine
(4) Mexiletine
2. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can cause taste disturbance?
(1) Procainamide
(2) Disopyramide
(3) Propafenone
(4) Sotalol
3. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can cause bronchospasm?
(1) Procainamide
(2) Disopyramide
(3) Propafenone
(4) Sotalol
4. ‘Holiday heart syndrome” is the term used for cardiotoxicity produced by?
(1) Alcohol
(2) Tobacco
(3) Cocaine
(4) Amphetamine
5. Cholesterol-lowering drug of choice in children is?
(1) Statins
(2) Ezetimibe
(3) Cholestyramine
(4) Lomitapide
6. Which of the following drug should not be used to treat Klebsiella infection?
(1) Ampicillin
(2) Amikacin
(3) Imipenem
(4) Tigecycline
7. Drug that inhibit translocation with combines with 50S ribosome
(1) Doxycycline
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Erythromycin
(4) Norfloxacin
8. Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?
(1) Liver function tests
(2) Kidney function test
(3) Platelet count
(4) Audiometry
9. All of the following drugs are bactericidal EXCEPT
(1) Isontazid
(2) Tigecycline
(3) Daptomycin
(4) Ciprofloxacin
10. Fluoroquinolone having longest half-life is
(1) Levofloxacin
(2) Lomefloxacin
(3) Ciprofloxacin
(4) Moxifloxacin
11. Which of the following beta-lactam antibiotics be safely used in a patient with a history of allergy to penicillins?
(1) Aztreonam
(2) Monobactam
(3) Azithromycin
(4) Ceftriaxone
12. Cephalosporin that does not require dose reduction in patient with any degree of renal impairment is
(1) Cefuroxime
(2) Cefoperazone
(3) Ceftazidime
(4) Cefotaxime
13. Which of the following penicillins is effective against pseudomonas?
(1) Piperacillin
(2) Amoxyecillin
(3) Ampicillin
(4) Oxacillin
14. Antimicrobial agent acting by inhibition of cell wall synthesis is
(1) Erythromycin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Lomefloxacin
(4) Cefepime
15. A patient has hepatic encephalopathy. The drug of choice for gut sterilization in this patient is
(1) Neomycin
(2) Netilmicin
(3) Bleomycin
(4) None of the above
16. Which of the following drug causes pseudotumor cerebri?
(1) Sparfloxacin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Gentamicin
(4) Clofazimine
17. Drug of choice for Methicillin Resistant Staphy-lococcus Aureus (MRSA) is
(1) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate
(2) Vancomycin
(3) Flucloxacillin
(4) Clindamycin
18. Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is
(1) Inhibits cell wall synthesis
(2) Inhibits protein synthesis
(3) Inhibits DNA gyrase
(4) Interferes with — intermediary metabolism
19. Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis Is :
(1) Erythromycin
(2) Rifampin
(3) Chloramphenicol
(4) Imipenem
20. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics having a polyene structure :
(1) Nystatin
(2) Ketoconazole
(3) Griseofulvin
(4) All of the above
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21. Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect :
(1) Cardiotoxicity
(2) Hepatotoxicity
(3) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
(4) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
22. Most emetogenic anticancer drug is
(1) Cisplatin
(2) Carboplatin
(3) High dose cyclophosphamide
(4) High dose methotrexate
23. Cerebellar toxicity is seen with
(1) Cisplatin
(2) Bleomycin
(3) Cytarabine
(4) Actinomycin D
24. Pentostatin acts by inhibiting
(1) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) Aldolase
(3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Adenylyl cyclase
25. Hand and foot syndrome is an adverse effect of
(1) 5-Fluorouracil
(2) Aldolase
(3) Etoposide
(4) Actinomycin D
26. Hormones are:
(1) Substance of intense biological activity
(2) Mediators of — inflammatory process
(3) By products of tissue metabolism
(4) Product of exocrine gland secretion
27. Drug causes acute phototoxic reaction IS
(1) Insulin
(2) Hydrocortisone
(3) Nalidixic acid
(4) Demeclocycline
28. The most potent topical corticosteroid is
(1) Hydrocortisone butyrate cream 0.1%
(2) Betamethasone valerate cream 0.5%
(3) Clobetasol propionate cream 0.5%
(4) Clobetasone butyrate cream 0.5%
29. Steroids are indicated in all of the following forms of tuberculosis EXCEPT
(1) Meningitis
(2) Pericarditis
(3) Ifeo-Caecal tuberculosis
(4) Adrenal Involvement
30. Finasteride acts by blocking
(1) Receptors
(2) 5-a reductase enzyme
(3) Androgen receptors
(4) β-receptors
31. All of the following preparations of insulin are rapid and short acting EXCEPT
(1) Lispro
(2) Aspart
(3) Glargine
(4) NPH
32. Which of the following is not an amino acid derivative?
(1) Dopamine
(2) Catecholamines
(3) Somatostatin
(4) Thyroid hormone
33. Which of the following hormone is “lipid-soluble””?
(1) Steroids
(2) Thyroid hormones
(3) Vitamin D
(4) All of the above
34. Peak ACTH secretion occurs at?
(1) 4AM
(2) 6AM
(3) 8AM
(4) 10AM
35. Nephrogenic DI is treated by?
(1) Thiazide diuretic
(2) Indomethacin
(3) Amiloride
(4) All of the above
36. During pregnancy, dose of levothyroxine may need to be?
(1) Increased
(2) Decreased
(3) Stopped
(4) All of the above
37. Which anti-thyroid drug is preferred in pregnancy with Graves’ disease?
(1) Propylthiouracil
(2) Carbimazole
(3) Methimazole
(4) Any of the above
38. Amiodarone contains which of the following elements?
(1) Zinc
(2) Iodine
(3) Calcium
(4) Tron
39. Liddle’s syndrome patients are very sensitive to which of the following treatment?
(1) Amiuloride
(2) Dexamethasone
(3) Fludrocortisone
(4) Eplerenone
40. Principal drug for the treatment of Adreno Cortical Carcinoma (ACC) Is?
(1) Mitotane
(2) Ketoconazole
(3) Mifepristone
(4) Metyrapone
41. In patient of head injuries with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without haematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be :
(1) Lasix
(2) Steroids
(3) 20% Mannitol
(4) Glycine
42. Drug causing gynecomastia is :
(1) Spironolactone
(2) Rifampicin
(3) Penicillin
(4) Bumetanide
43. Most common cause of Moebius syndrome is use of which of the following drug in pregnancy?
(1) Misoprostol
(2) Thalidomide
(3) Methotrexate
(4) Dinoprostone
44. Aspirin should be used with caution in the following groups of patients Because of which of the following reason :
(1) In diabetics because it can cause hyperglycemia
(2) In children with viral disease, because of the risk of acute renal failure
(3) In gout, because it can increase serum uric acid
(4) In pregnancy, because of high risk of teratogenicity
45. Which of the following agent is not used for treatment of — erectile dysfunction?
(1) PGE
(2) Vardenafil
(3) Phenylephrine
(4) Alprostadil