Biophysics Quiz

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Biophysics Quiz

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Quiz on Biophysics

1. The force that drives an ion through a membrane channel depends upon
(1) the size of the channel
(2) the size of the ion
(3) the size of the membrane
(4) the difference in electrical potential across the membrane

2. What locks all transmembrane proteins in the bilayer ?
(1) Covalent bonds that form between the phospholipids and the proteins.
(2) Hydrophobic interactions between non-polar amino acids of the proteins and the non-polar chains of phospholipids.
(3) The addition of sugar molecules to the protein surface facing the external environment.
(4) Non-covalent interactions between serine and threonine of the proteins with phospholipids.

3. Which of the following is not correct about freeze-fracture technique ?
(1) It involves physical breaking of frozen biological samples.
(2) Fixation in glutaraldehyde
(3) Involves vacuum sublimation
(4) Cryoprotection with glyceron

4. Two double stranded DNA samples that are identical with respect to the number of base pairs, but differ significantly in their GC content, can be separated by
(1) density gradient centrifugation
(2) agarose gel electrophoreses
(3) dialysis
(4) oligo-dT column chromatography

5. An at-helical conformation of a globular protein in solution is best determined by which of the following ?
(1) Ultraviolet-visible absorbance spectroscopy
(2) Fluorescence spectroscopy
(3) Electron microscopy
(4) Circular dichroism

6. Which of the following techniques yields the most information about the positional and spatial characteristics of all atoms in a protein ?
(1) Automated Edman analysis
(2) Circular dichroism spectroscopy
(3) Magnetic resonance spectroscopy
(4) Reversible unfolding/refolding

7. UV spectroscopy is not used to quantitate the following compounds based on absorbance ?
(1) Nucleic acids have absorbance peak at 260 nm
(2) NAD(P)H have absorbanc peak at 340 nm
(3) Aromatic amino acids have absorption maxima at about 280 nm
(4) Sulphur containing amino acids have absorbance at 270 nm

8. In UV-VIS spectrophotometry, a wavelength shift is bathochromic and hyperchromic, when
(1) The absorption maximum is shifted to a higher wavelength and its intensity does not change.
(2) The absorption maximum is shifted to a higher wavelength and its intensity decreases.
(3) The absorption maximum is shifted to a lower wavelength and its intensity increases.
(4) The absorption maximum is shifted to a higher wavelength and its intensity increases.

9. SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and isoelectric focusing method for the separation of protein have which of the following characteristics in common ? Both ?
(1) Separate native proteins
(2) Separate proteins according to their mass
(3) Required a pH gradient
(4) None of these

10. A mixture of two proteins having similar molecular mass but different oligomeric properties can be separated
(1) SDS-PAGE analysis
(2) Native PAGE analysis
(3) Isoelectric focusing
(4) Both (2) and (3)

11. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by SDS-PAGE because
(1) It helps in solubilisation of proteins there by making it easier to separate.
(2) It binds to proteins and confers uniform negative charge density there by making them move during electrophoresis.
(3) Decrease the surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis.
(4) Stabilizes the proteins.

12. The Polymerase Chain Reaction or PCR is a technique that
(1) was used to demonstrate DNA as a genetic material.
(2) is used to determine the content of minerals in a soil sample.
(3) use short DNA primer and a thermostable DNA polymerase to replicate specific DNA sequence in vitro.
(4) measures the ribosome transfer rate during translation.

13. All of the following statements about plasma membrane structure and function are true, except :
(1) Both sides of a plasma membrane are identical in structure and function.
(2) Special membrane proteins can co-transport two solutes by coupling diffusion with active transport.
(3) Diffusion, osmosis and facilitated diffusion do not require any energy input from cell.
(4) Voltage across the membrane depends on an unequal distribution of ions across the plasma membrane.

14. Which of the following statements regarding mass spectrometry is wrong ?
(1) Molecular ion peaks always have even numbered values of m/z.
(2) In normal mass spectrometer, electron impact causes a molecule to loss an electron and become a molecular radical cation which decomposes into fragment cations and radicals.
(3) Only cations can be detected by a normal mass spectrometer.
(4) None of the above

15. MR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials ?
(1) Radioactive materials
(2) Insoluble chemical compounds
(3) Liquids
(4) Gases

16. NMR is the study of absorption of by _________ nuclei in a magnetic field.
(1) Radioactive radiation
(2) IR radiation
(3) Radio frequency radiation
(4) Microwaves

17. Ionophores are
(1) The gating mechanisms associated with the transport of ions.
(2) Intrinsic proteins that passively transport ions.
(3) Chemicals that form pores in the plasma membrane and allow ions to cross.
(4) Intrinsic proteins that actively transport ions.

18. If all proteins from a cell membrane are removed, which of the following can be expected to happen ?
(1) Transport of ions across the membrane will be stimulated.
(2) Diffusion of polar solutes of high molecular weight across the membrane will increase.
(3) Transport of ions across the membrane will not be affected.
(4) Transport of ions across the membrane will be inhibited.

19. For a mammalion skeletal muscle, if the extracellular K+ concentration [K+]out = 4 mm, and the intracellular K+ concentration [K+]in = 128 mm, the approximate K+ potential (mV) is
Assume : Faraday’s constant = 9.65 x 104C mol-1
Gas constant = 8.31 JK-1 mol-1
Temperature = 37 °C.
(1) -47
(2) -94
(3) -27
(4) 0

20. The main difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is that
(1) In active transport the molecule more from areas of high to areas of law conc.
(2) Carrier protein is involved only in case of active transport.
(3) In active transport energy is consumed to move molecules against a concentration gradient.
(4) In active transport only water molecules are transported.

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. All of the following statements about action and myosin are true, except :
(1) The globular head section of myosin has domain for binding ATP and actin.
(2) Actin is the major protein of the thick filament.
(3) Binding of ATP to the actin myosin complex promotes dissociation of actin and myosin.
(4) F-actin is stabilized when tropomyosin is bound to It.

22. Which of the following statements about the myosin is not true ?
(1) Myosin binds to polymerized actin.
(2) In vitro, myosin assembles spontaneously into the thin filaments.
(3) Myosin is an ATPase.
(4) Myosin has domain that interact with one another to effect its physiological functions.

23. The common pathway of entry of proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes and plasma membrane is characterized by
(1) Presence of a signal sequence that targets these proteins to endoplasmic reticulum during synthesis.
(2) Addition of specific sorting sequences to these proteins after their synthesis.
(3) Addition of N-linked oligosaccharide to these proteins.
(4) Biding of their mRNA to special ribosome population attached to endoplasmic reticulum.

24. The common pathway of entry into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) of Secretary. Lysosomal and Plasma membrane proteins is best explained by which of the following ?
(1) Binding of their mRNA to a special class of ribosomes attached to the ER.
(2) Addition of a common strong signal to each type of protein after completion of synthesis.
(3) Addition of oligosaccharides to all three types of proteins.
(4) Presence of a signal sequence that targets each type of protein to the ER during synthesis.

25. Which of the following drives directional transport through nuclear pore complexes ?
(1) Dynamin
(2) Rho GTPase
(3) Ran GTPase
(4) ABC transporter

26. The nucleolus is the site where
(1) Ribosomal RNA is. Transcribed and ribosomes arc asscmbled.
(2) DNA replication occur.
(3) Proteins recently imported from the cytoplasm are deposited.
(4) Translation occur.

27. Which of the following is incorrect about mitochondria ?
(1) Mitochondria possess DNA and functional transcriptional and translational machinery.
(2) Some of the Mitochondrial proteins are coded by nuclear genes.
(3) Except for the amino acyl-tRNA synthatases other proteins are coded by nuclear genes.
(4) Mitochondria of material origin are the only mitochondria that they passed down to the progeny.

28. In the cell cycle
(1) M phase is both the most complex and the longest phase.
(2) There is a G0 phase in equilibrium with the G1 phase (G1).
(3) Quiescent cells cannot be induced to re-enter the cell cycle.
(4) Microtubule spindles form during the S phase.

29. DNA was isolated from three samples of normal human cells. In each of these samples cells were at different stages of cell division.
Sample 1 = Cells were in G2 phase.
Sample 2 = Cells were in anaphase.
Sample 3 = Cells were in telophase.
DNA isolated from which of these samples conforms to Chargaff’s rules ?
(1) Only samples 1 and 2
(2) Only samples 1 and 3
(3) Only samples 2 and 3
(4) Only samples 1, 2 and 3

30. P53, a tumor suppressor gene :
(P) located on chromosome 17
(Q) encodes 53 kDa protein
(R) Checks the cell cycle progression in the G1 phase.
(S) termed as guardian of genome.
(1) P and Q
(2) Q and R
(3) P, Q and R
(4) P, Q, R and S

31. One difference between receptor mediated apoptosis and mitochondria-mediated apoptosis is that
(1) Receptor mediated apoptosis makes use of procaspase-9.
(2) FADD and TRADD serve as protein kinase in receptor mediated apoptosis.
(3) Mitochondria mediated apoptosis makes use of executioner caspases.
(4) Mitochondria mediated apoptosis involves the movement of cytochrome-c into the cytosol.

32. Which of the following event does not occur during t-RNA processing ?
(1) 5’ end cleavage by the RNaseP.
(2) Addition of Poly(A) site.
(3) Addition of CCA sequence at 3’ end.
(4) Chemical modification of bases.

33. A leader sequence is an mRNA of eukaryotes can be found
(1) After the “stop” codon.
(2) Between transcriptional start site and translational start site.
(3) Within the first exon.
(4) In the exon-intron boundaries.

34. In a muscle fibre at rest, the length of I band is mm and A band as 1.5 mm. What is the length of sarcomere ?
(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2.5 mm
(3) 3.5 mm
(4) 5.0 mm

35. P-R Interval in the ECG corresponds to
(1) Time interval between onset of atrial contraction and onset of ventricular contraction.
(2) Time delay in the A-V Node.
(3) S-A Nodal conduction time.
(4) Ventricular depolarisation.

36. Electro-cardiographic leads designated V1, V2 etc. refers to
(1) Unipolar limb leads
(2) Unipolar chest leads
(3) Bipolar limb leads
(4) Bipolar chest leads

37. The basis for Korot koft sound is due to
(1) AV valve closure
(2) Aortic valve closure
(3) Arterial expansion
(4) Arterial turbulence

38. Viscosity of blood is
(1) Same as of ECF.
(2) 10 times of Urine.
(3) 5-6 times more than of water.
(4) 5-6 times less than of water.

39. Which of the following is wrongly matched about ECG waves and their duration ?
(1) P wave — 0.10 sec.
(2) S wave — 0.04 sec.
(3) QRS complex — max. 0.10 sec.
(4) Q wave — 0.10 sec.

40. Increased blood viscosity and slow circulation causes
(1) RBC rouleux formation
(2) Increased plasma skimming
(3) Increased number of RBC in capillaries
(4) (1) and (3)

41. Isotopes used to measure RBC volume is
(1) Cr51
(2) H3
(3) D2O
(4) 1135

42. In Einthoven’s triangle, what is the value of lead III when lead 1 = 2 mV and lead II = 1 mV ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43. Normal plasma osmolality is mOsmol/kg H2O.
(1) 285
(2) 385
(3) 485
(4) 585

44. In a person acclimitalized for high attitude, O2 saturation is maintained because of
(1) Increased Hb concentration.
(2) Increased blood volume.
(3) Better diffusion in lungs.
(4) All of the above.

45. ST segment of ECG corresponds to which phase of action potential ?
(1) Rapid depolarisation
(2) Rapid repolarisation
(3) Final repolarization
(4) Platen phase