Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers

Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers paper for the written examination is given below. Candidates who are looking for Nuclear Medicine exam Questions and Answers paper can find in this section. The applied candidates who are getting prepared for the Nuclear Medicine can view this page for the Nuclear Medicine Last Ten Years Questions and Answers Papers.

Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers

Download the Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers & Solutions & make it as a reference for your exam preparation. Take advantage of these Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers Papers in a proper manner to get qualifying Marks. Last 5 years Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers Papers provided here. Candidates who are applied for the above exam can check and download the Nuclear Medicine Questions and Answers Papers from here.

Questions and Answers on Nuclear Medicine

1. All of the following statements are true about silicon Photodiode, except :
(1) PM tubes are replaced with light sensitive semiconductor detectors.
(2) Semiconductor detector in photodiode acts as a scintillators.
(3) Typical gain for conventional Silicon photodiode is lesser than PM tubes.
(4) It requires very low noise electronics to read out signals.

2. As the distance between parallel hole collimator and object being imaged reduces
(1) Spatial resolution improves and count rate increases
(2) Apparent size of object and count rate remains same
(3) Spatial resolution and count rate remains same
(4) Spatial resolution improves and count rate reduces

3. Starburst type of appearance is
(1) seen with pinhole and parallel hole collimator both
(2) due to the septal penetration of incident gamma rays
(3) seen with low energy gamma rays
(4) None of these

4. Which of the following radioisotope is not suitable for counting in liquid scintillation counters ?
(1) H-3
(2) C14
(3) I-131
(4) Cu-64

5. Cerenkov counting system is used for
(1) Detecting low energy beta emitters
(2) Detecting high energy beta emitters
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Detection of gamma emitters

6. Which of these detectors cannot be used in Pulse height analyser ?
(1) Proportional counters
(2) Semiconductor detectors
(3) GM counters
(4) Scintillation detectors

7. Which of the following is not seen in Ideal pulse height spectrum in photon spectrometry ?
(1) Photopeak
(2) Backscatter peak
(3) Compton edge
(4) Compton region

8. Dose calibrator is based on principles of
(1) Ionization chamber
(2) Geiger Muller counter
(3) Proportional counter
(4) Scintillator detectors

9. Choose incorrect statement about quenching in GM counters.
(1) Self-quenches GM counters has quenching gas to overcome the uncontrolled avalanche.
(2) Organic quenching gas has limited lifetime as molecular fragments do not combine after dissociation.
(3) Quenching gas can readily accept electron from positive ion cloud to neutralize it.
(4) Quenching gas is a strong absorbed of UV rays.

10. In relation to PET QC, the difference among the daily blank sonogram, and a reference blank sonogram acquired at some point in the last setup of the scanner is called :
(1) Average variance
(2) Streak artifact
(3) Scatter correction
(4) Calibration factor

11. The number of electrons discharged from the cathode filament is controlled by the:
(1) The tube voltage (kV)
(2) The temperature of the anode
(3) The tube current (mA)
(4) The distance from the target

12. The PET scanner quality control procedure in which data are used to convert the reconstructed image pixel values into activity concentration is called :
(1) Normalization
(2) Calibration
(3) Blank scan
(4) Attenuation correction

13. The Full Width at Half Maximum (FWHM) of a photopeak is a measure of
(1) PHA window setting.
(2) Camera sensitivity.
(3) Field of view.
(4) Detector energy resolution

14. Which type of collimator is used in thyroid uptake probe ?
(1) Parallel hole
(2) Pin hole
(3) No collimator
(4) Flat field collimator

15. Which of the following is not a component of gamma fay probe system ?
(1) Collimator
(2) Semiconductor detectors
(3) Photomultiplier tubes
(4) Amplifiers

16. Collimation technique used in PLT scanner is
(1) Electronic collimation
(2) Absorptive collimation
(3) Ring collimators
(4) Parallel hole collimators

17. What is the average half-life of radionuclide which decays by positron emission with half-life of 60 minutes ?
(1) 60 minutes
(2) 86.4 minutes
(3) 20 minutes
(4) 41.6 minutes

18. True about McNemar Test is
(1) Marginal homogeneity
(2) Unpaired Chi-square test
(3) Difference in mean
(4) Paired T test

19. A radioactivity with half-life of 6 hours was measured by technologist in a dose calibrator within a span of 10 minutes. His readings were as follows :
4.17mCi, 4.23mCi, 4.36mCi and 441mCi.
What is this error known as ?
(1) Technical error
(2) Blunder
(3) Random error
(4) Standard error

20. A patient with PCT, underwent near total thyroidectomy, 4 weeks later, his TSH was 40microIU/ml, He received 45mCi and I131-Nal Radioiodine therapy. Cumulative activity in thyroid remnant can be determined by the formula
(1) 1.44TeAO
(2) 1.44TbAt
(3) 1.44TpAO
(4) None of these

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. A radionuclide decays with both gamma and beta emission. Its Eβmax is 606 keV and gamma energy of 364 keV. Determine the average beta energy for this radionuclide.
(1) 202 keV
(2) 303 keV
(3) 606 keV
(4) 364 keV

22. Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) depends upon all, except :
(1) Linear Energy transfer
(2) Number of dose fractions
(3) Biological system or end point
(4) Oxygen enhanced ratio

23. Which of the following is not true regarding Oxygen Enhanced Ratio (OER) ?
(1) It is the ratio of does under hypoxia to aerated condition to produce same biological effect.
(2) Small quantity of oxygenation is required for radiosensitization.
(3) OER decreases as linear energy transfer increases.
(4) OER approaches unity for Sparely ionizing radiation.

24. A 45 years old man as referred for myocardial perfusion scintigraphy (MPS). He is worried about the radiation exposure during the procedure and wants to undergo study with minimal exposure. Which one of the following study you would advised to minimize the radiation exposure ?
(1) Tc-99m Sestamibi rest Stress study
(2) Dual isotope SPECT study
(3) Rb-82 stress MPS
(4) N-13 stress MPS

25. What are the Units of Absorbed dose, Equivalent dose and exposure respectively ?
(1) Rad, Rem, gray
(2) Rem, Rad, roentgen
(3) Rad, Rem, coulombs/kg
(4) Gray, Sievert, Rem

26. Radioactive package containing Mo99-99m Technetium generator was received by Nuclear Medicine technologist. Ile did survey and gage details as follows :
Which of the following description is correct for this radioactive package in terms of category, maximum exposure at surface and maximum exposure at metre respectively ?
(1) III, <= 200 mR/hr, < 10 mR/hr
(2) III, <=50 mR/hr, < 1 mR/hr
(3) II, </= 200 mR/hr, < 10 mR/hr
(4) II, </=50 mR/hr, < 1 mR/hr

27. What is the ALI value for inhalation of 131I?
(1) 2×107 Bq
(2) 2.0 x 107 Bq
(3) 1.0 x 108 Bq
(4) 1.0 x 106 Bq

28. What is the most radioresistance phase of cell cycle ?
(1) G1
(2) G2
(3) S
(4) M

29. What is the radiation weighting factor for alpha particles ?
(1) 1
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 10

30. For humans the LD50(60) value is in the range of
(1) 2-5 Gy
(2) 3-5 Gy
(3) 4-6 Gy
(4) 5-6 Gy

31. A Nuclear Medicine resident gets effective does report of 0.5mSv is a quarter. The derived quantity is
(1) An estimate of cell death incurred in the quarter
(2) Hormesis achieved in the quarter
(3) Cumulative cancer risk
(4) Bone marrow damage

32. What is the maximum permissible amount of Mo-99 per mCi (per 37 MBq) of Tc-99m at the time of injection ?
(1) 0.15 kBq per MBq
(2) 1.5 microcuirie/mCi
(3) 0.5 microcurie/mCi
(4) 0.15 micreocurie/MBq

33. 60 years old male patient underwent a Tc-99m MDP bone scan. His whole body image showed diffuse radiotracer in the region of stomach and also in thyroid gland. Nuclear Medicine Physician ordered radiopharmaceutical OC testing with thin layer paper chromatography and acetone. Which of the following observation best explains the given situation best ?
(1) Counts near origin of source of radioactivity 9700 and at top 300
(2) Counts near origin of source of radioactivity 9600 and at top 400
(3) Counts near origin of source of radioactivity 8000 and at top 2000
(4) Counts near origin of source of radioactivity 2000 and at top 8000

34. Which of the following statement is a false ?
(1) N-13 decays 100% by positron (betat+) emission.
(2) At physiological pH, the major form of ammonia is NII.
(3) N-13 ammonia has a 70% to 80% extraction rate by myocardial cells at normal coronary flow rates
(4) Extraction efficiency does not drop at higher flow rates.

35. Limit for radiochemical impurity with Ge68 breakthrough in Ge68 — Ga68 generator is
(1) <0.001%
(2) <0.01 %
(3) <0.002%
(4) <0.02%

36. Which of the following is true regarding “Colloid shift” ?
(1) There is increased colloid uptake in Kuffer’s cell.
(2) Decreased colloid uptake noted in spleen and liver.
(3) Seen in conditions with diffuse involvement of liver like Cirrhosis.
(4) None of these

37. All are true about myocardial perfusion agents, ECEPT
(1) All three Thallium 201, MIBI and tetrofosmin are cations.
(2) Mechanism of uptake of MIBI & tetrofosmin is by passive diffusion & negative transmembrane potential of mitochondria.
(3) Mechanism of uptake of Thallium is active transport by Na/K ATPase pump.
(4) Intracellularly Sestamibi and Tetrofosmin retained in the nucleus while thallium 201 appears in free form in cytosol.

38. Regarding =Tc-99m ECD (Ethyl Cysteinate Dimer) false statement is
(1) It is also known as Tc-99m bicisate.
(2) It is a neutral lipophilic agent that passively diffuses across the blood brain barrier.
(3) It has a first-pass extraction of 90%.
(4) Inside the cell it undergoes enzymatic de-etherification.

39. The most useful PET tracer for evaluation of epileptogenic tubers in tuberous sclerosis is
(1) F-18 FDG
(2) C-11 Methionine
(3) C-11 Flumazenil
(4) C-11 Methyl-I-tryptophan

40. All can be considered as functional imaging strategies for presynaptic dopaminergic receptors, EXCEPT :
(1) F-18 DOPA
(2) C-11 Raclopride
(3) F-18 FP CIT
(4) Tc-99m TRODAT

41. Which of the following is a selective A2A receptor agonist ?
(1) Dipyridamole
(2) Regadenoson
(3) Papavarine
(4) Adenosine

42. Increases chemical impurity with aluminum in Tc-99m-Sulfur colloid preparation results in increased uptake in
(1) Thyroid
(2) Liver
(3) Lungs
(4) Stomach

43. The extraction fraction of Tc-99m DTPA is
(1) 20%
(2) 30%
(3) 40%
(4) 60%

44. Splenic uptake on a Tc-99m MDP bone scan is most often seen in :
(1) Lymphoma
(2) Cirrhosis with portal hypertension
(3) Sickle cell disease
(4) Hypersplenism

45. If a kit contains 140mC1 of 9Tc-99m in 23ml at 9:00 am., how much volume must be withdrawn to obtain a dose of 5mCi at 3:00 p.m. ?
(1) 0.8ml
(2) 1.6 ml
(3) 2.4ml
(4) 0.6 ml