Neonatology Quiz

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Neonatology Quiz

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Quiz on Neonatology

1. Which of the following has moderate evidence in prevention of NEC?
(1) Standardised feeding protocol
(2) Avoidance of severe anaemia
(3) Antenatal corticosteroid
(4) Avoidance of prolonged antibiotics use

2. What is true regarding nasal IPPV in comparison to nasal CPAP?
(1) Decreases extubation failure
(2) Decreases BPD
(3) More Pneumothorax
(4) Decreases mortality

3. What is not a long term adverse outcome of fetal growth restriction?
(1) Chronic kidney disease
(2) Type 2 Diabetes mellitus
(3) Coronary artery diseases
(4) Asthma

4. Match the CHD with age of presentation,
a. TGA 1. 1-2 days
b. VSD 2. 14 days
c. Coarction of aorta 3. 3-7 days
d. HLHS 4. 4-6 weeks
(1) a:2, b:3, c:1. d:4
(2) a: 1, b:4, c:3, d:2
(3) a:4, b:3, c:2, d:1
(4) a: 1, b:4, c:2, d:3

5. Which segment of the fetal circulation contain the highest O2.
(1) Right atrium
(2) Right ventricle
(3) Left ventricle
(4) Umblical artery

6. Biphasic stridor occur in all except?
(1) Laryngomalacia
(2) Trachecomalacia
(3) Vocal cord paralysis
(4) Laryngeal web

7. Preterm infants are prone to apnea. The main reason is ”?
(1) Preterm infant have more quiet sleep than REM sleep.
(2) Preterm infant have blunted response to Co2.
(3) GER is the most common cause of apnea of prematurity.
(4) Supplemental oxygen may be helpful in apnea of prematurity.

8. A baby is having cyanosis and desaturation. ABG is showing normal PaO2. What is the most probable reason?
(1) Carbon mono oxide poisoning
(2) Methemoglobinemia
(3) Intrapulmonary shunt
(4) Cyanotic heart disease

9. What is not true regarding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia?
(1) Surgical correction is not an emergency and should be done once baby is stabilised.
(2) Liver herniation is a poor prognostic indicator.
(3) iNO ts a good modality in CDH to decrease pulmonary vascular pressures.
(4) Induced Hypocarbia and alkalosis are not recommended.

10. You are teaching residents about the pulmonary mechanics. You note the following ventilator parameters : Compliance 0.005 L/emH20, Resistance 30 cmH2O/L/sec. The 95% of the lung would be emptied by?
(1) 0.15 sec
(2) 0.20 sec
(3) 0.25 sec
(4) 0.45 sec

11. The best measure of bilirubin production is?
(1) HbCO measurement
(2) ETCO measurement
(3) Serum bilirubin
(4) Reticulocyte count

12. A term baby is born by vaginal delivery. Mother is O — ve and baby is A + ve. True statement regarding the incompatibility is?
(1) Direct Coombs on baby blood would be strongly positive
(2) More severe Rh_ disease is expected if baby was O+ve
(3) In maternal blood, IgG is formed primarily followed by IgM
(4) In neonatal blood, bilirubin of 10 at 24hr necessitates exchange transfusion

13. A 21-day-old male infant presents with history of recurrent oral thrush and eczematous skin rash. The WBC counts are persistently low with normal morphology. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is?
(1) Severe combine immunodeficiency
(2) Chronic Granulomatous Disease
(3) Leukocyte Adhesion Defect
(4) Bruton’s disease

14. Placental pathology would be most important in diagnosis and management in which of the following?
(1) GBS infection
(2) Listeria infection
(3) Syphilis
(4) Preeclampsia

15. The best fit for three compartment pharmacokinetic model is?
(1) Vancomycin given IV
(2) Surfactant given via ETT
(3) Drug transport across placenta
(4) Drug transport across breast tissue

16. Cerebral blood flow decreases with all EXCEPT?
(1) Decrease pCO2
(2) Increase pO2
(3) Increase serum glucose
(4) Increase fetal Hb

17. A 14-day-old infant present with omphalitis. He is being breast fed and having seedy stools with each feeding. Physical exam is normal. The CBC showed WBC of 2500/cumm with neutrophils of 2%. After consulting with haematologist, you start G-CSF. Within 2 days the WBC rose to 6000 and neutrophils to 36%. The most likely cause is?
(1) Severe congenital neutropenia
(2) Idiopathic neutropenia of infancy
(3) Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
(4) Chronic granulomatous disease

18. A 33 wks female infant with BW of 1420 gm is noted to have prolonged bleeding after heel stick. Platelet count is 1,80,000/cumm and Prothrombin time is 40 sec. Vitamin K 1 mg IM was given with no response. The next important investigation is to check?
(1) Factor V
(2) Factor VIII
(3) vWF D
(4) Bone marrow

19. Syndrome of Inappropriate AntuuDiuretic Hormone (SIADH) is characterised by all except?
(1) Low urine output
(2) Low Na excretion
(3) High Urine Osmolality
(4) Weight gain

20. What is not true regarding Low Molecular weight heparin in comparison to unfractionated heparin?
(1) LMWH is short acting
(2) LMWH can be given subcutaneously
(3) Monitoring require anti Xa assay
(4) there is less risk of haemorrhage with LMWH

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. True statements about RhoGam are all EXCEPT ”
(1) It’s amonoclonal antibody
(2) Given at 28 wks before delivery
(3) Given within 72 hrs after delivery
(4) Kliehauer-Betke test could be used to calculate the dose

22. Positive Wright stain for neutrophils with negative Gram stain is suggestive of?
(1) Benign pustular melanosis
(2) Erythema toxicum
(3) Milia
(4) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

23. What is not true regarding Hirschprung disease?
(1) Baby have delayed passage of meconium.
(2) Contrast study will show dilation of aganglionic segment
(3) Histology show increase acetylcholinesterase activity
(4) Present with large bowel obstruction

24. What is odd in William syndrome?
(1) Supravalvular aortic stenosis
(2) Short stature
(3) Normal facies
(4) Mild to moderate learning difficulties

25. What is false regarding lactation management centre?
(1) It has breast milk storage & 3 dispensing facility.
(2) Provide lactation support to all lactating mother
(3) Store donor human milk
(4) It has breast milk collection facility

26. Match the following regarding diaper dermatitis.
a. Candida diaper dermatitis 1. Involves scalp
b. Seborrhoic dermatitis 2. Spares inguinal fold
c. Psoriasis 3. Involves inguinal fold
d. Irritant dermatitis 4. Satellite lesions

(1) a:2, b:1, c:4, d:3
(2) a:3, b:4, c:2, d: 1
(3) a:4, b:1, c:3, d:2
(4) a: 1, b:4, c:2, d:3

27. What is true regarding intraventricular haemorrhage?
(1) Babies born between 12 am – 7 am have higher incidence of IVH
(2) TUGR babies have higher incidence of TVH than preterm
(3) Indomethacin increases the incidence of IVH
(4) Genetic factors doesn’t predispose for IVH

28. The correlation coefficient computed for two parameters measured in 429 patients is r= 0.829. This means that:
(1) The two parameters are directly correlated, and the link is weak
(2) The two parameters are inversely correlated, and the link is strong
(3) The two parameters are directly correlated, and the link is strong
(4) There are too few cases and we do not trust this coefficient’s value

29. All is true regarding a regression line EXCEPT?
(1) It is a straight line located as close as possible to all the points of a scatter chart
(2) It is defined by an equation having 2 parameters: the slope and the intercept
(3) It provides an approximate relationship between the values of two parameters
(4) It is parallel to one of the coordinate axes

30. Which is a test to detect publication bias in meta-analysis?
(1) Egger regression intercept
(2) Chi squared test
(3) Grade system
(4) Funnel plot

31. Which of the following is not a medical journal index system?
(3) Medline
(4) Medscape

32. Which of the following is not a grade domain for rating down?
(1) Publication bias
(2) Inconsistency
(3) Dose response gradient
(4) Indirectness

33. What is current Infant mortality rate of India?
(1) 35
(2) 30
(3) 27
(4) 36

34. Who fund the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojna?
(1) 100% by Central Government
(2) 100% by State Government
(3) 50:50 by Central & State government
(4) 60:40 by Central & State government

35. Which of following is not an objective of LaQshya program?
(1) To reduce maternal & neonatal mortality & morbidity
(2) To improve quality of care during delivery & immediate postpartum period
(3) To improve childhood immunization coverage
(4) To provide respectful maternity care

36. Which of the following condition is not covered under Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)?
(1) Birth defects
(2) Developmental delay and disabilities
(3) Childhood deficiency disorders
(4) Childhood trauma and accidents

37. What is a false statement regarding Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK)?
(1) JSSK cover pregnant women including delivery & cesarian section
(2) It provide free transportation, from home to hospital and back
(3) JSSK covers rural & urban woman & newborn population
(4) JSSK covers newborn upto 30 days of life

38. What is not true regarding Home based newborn care?
(1) Services are delivered by ASHA worker
(2) Six home visit in first 42 day of life
(3) Focus is to strengthen health & nutrition of mother and baby
(4) Childhood Immunisation is not covered in Home based newborn care program

39. What is not true regarding YASHODA initiative?
(1) YASHODA is a regular employee of health system
(2) The program is supported by Norway government
(3) The work are is in public health facility
(4) Birth immunisation is a quality indicator for the initiative

40. Extended Wigglesworth classification Is used for investigation of?
(1) Neonatal Deaths
(2) Perinatal deaths
(3) Maternal Mortality
(4) Under five mortality

41. How much is the share of neonatal deaths among all under five deaths?
(1) 27%
(2) 37%
(3) 47%
(4) 57%

42. What is the mean duration of gestation for triplets?
(1) 32 weeks
(2) 34 weeks
(3) 35 weeks
(4) 36 weeks

43. As per Indian guideline, what is not true regarding cut off gestation age/weight for ROP — screening eligibility?
(1) Any preterm infant at the discretion of treating paediatrician or neonatologist
(2) If gestation is not known, Birth weight 2000 grams or less
(3) Gestation age more than 34 weeks with risk factors
(4) Gestation age 32 weeks or less, even without risk factor

44. Aggressive Posterior Retinopathy Of Prematurity (APROP) is characterised by all except?
(1) Involvement of Zone 1 or Zone 2 posterior
(2) Rapid progression to retinal detachement
(3) Early elevated neo vascularisation
(4) Intraretinal shunting

45. What is true regarding brain death in newborns?
(1) The diagnosis of Brain death can’t be made in preterm infants less than 37 weeks.
(2) An interval observation period of 12 hours should be given between two separate examinations.
(3) Apnea test requires rise in arterial PaCO2 by 10 mmHg.
(4) EEG is mandatory to establish brain death in newborn.