Geography Mock Test Questions and Answers

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Mock Test Questions and Answers on Geography

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Modern census is held once in ten years in India
(B) Vital statistics is a civil registration system recording incidence of crimes
(C) National sample surveys in India is conducted in the form of successive rounds
(D) The greatest strength of census enumeration is that it covers all the people in a country.

2. Which of the following law(s) is/are given by Ravenstein ?
(a) Each main current of migration produces a counter current
(b) Females predominate among short-term migrants
(c) Migration tends to be selective
(d) Magnitude of migration increases with the advancement of technology
Select the correct alternative using the codes below :
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (c) only

3. Which of the following theorist/s putforth population growth versus wealth and poverty ?
(1) Robert Malthus
(2) David Ricardo
(3) Warren Thompson
(4) Michael Sadler
(A) Only (1) and (2) are correct
(B) Only (3) and (4) are correct
(C) Only (1) and (4) are correct
(D) Only (1) and (3) are correct

4. Which of the following is a consequence of migration ?
(i) Changes in sex ratio
(ii) Changes in literacy and education
(iii) Changes in age-structure
(iv) Changes in residence
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv) only

5. Assertion (A) : Copper smelting industry is often located near the source of raw material.
Reason (R) : Industries are usually located close to the source of raw material.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

6. Transplanting method of rice cultivation is most common in which of the following area ?
(A) West Odisha
(B) Saurashtra Plain
(C) Eastern Ghat
(D) Deltaic region of the West Bengal

7. According to the All India Soil and Land use Survey Organization (1970), class V of Land use capability class denotes for :
(A) Very well suited for grazing
(B) Well suited for grazing
(C) Fairly well suited for grazing
(D) Poorly suited for grazing

8. Which one of the following countries is known as the “land of co-operatives” ?
(A) Finland
(B) Denmark
(C) Sweden
(D) Norway

9. State farms in Russia are also known as …………… .
(A) Kolkhozes
(B) Kibbutzim
(C) Sovkhoz
(D) Latifundium

10. Optimiser behaviour belongs to which of the following approach to industrial location ?
(A) Behavioural Approach
(B) Least cost Approach
(C) Structural Approach
(D) Functional Approach

11. Which of the following statements about Weaver’s crop combination method is not correct ?
(A) Weaver was the first to use the statistical technique to demarcate the crop combinations of the Mid-West (U.S.A.).
(B) Weaver’s method suffers from the set back of laborious calculations.
(C) According to Weaver the theoretical curve for the standard measurement of five crop combination was 25% in each of five crops.
(D) Scott modified Weaver’s method and applied it to a survey of both crop and livestock combinations.

12. Which of the following factors is not a dimension of Gender Inequality Index ?
(A) Health
(B) Empowerment
(C) Labour market
(D) Knowledge

13. Assertion (A) : An overwhelming proportion of the scheduled caste population in India is confined to rural areas.
Reason (R) : A very large proportion of India’s scheduled caste population is either landless or have small holdings.
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct

14. Assertion (A) : A state is an independent, sovereign government exercising control over a certain spatially defined and bounded area.
Reason (R) : All states are cleanly defined nations represented by homogeneous religion, culture, language and national interests.
Which of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

15. Cultural convergence occurs when :
(A) Ideas, innovations, substances, practices, religions, enterprises and styles spread areally
(B) Value systems, attitudes, customs, language and other cultural traits are brought by the contact of dissimilar culture groups.
(C) An attribute of one culture group is adopted by another
(D) A culture group has modified its environmental setting

16. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The domain of the Austro-Asiatic family of languages lies in the north-eastern part of India
(B) The ancient hunters and food gathers organized themselves in groups based on extended kinship principle
(C) Social historians are in general agreement that caste system began in the Vedic period
(D) Castes are often classified into three main groups, such as functional or occupational, racial or ethnic and sectarian

17. Arrange the following north-eastern states on the basis of share of scheduled tribe population in the state total population (2011) starting from the highest.
(1) Assam
(2) Manipur
(3) Mizoram
(4) Tripura
Codes :
(A) (3), (2), (4) and (1)
(B) (2), (3), (1) and (4)
(C) (4), (3), (1) and (2)
(D) (1), (3), (4) and (2)

18. Federalism does not involve which of the following ?
(A) Division of power
(B) Division of function
(C) Regional autonomy
(D) Centralisation of power

19. The first linguistic survey of India was conducted by ……………. .
(A) Barber
(B) Emeneau
(C) Grierson
(D) Khubchandan

20. Which one of the four language families of India is the most diverse as their speakers communicate in 70-80 different languages ?
(A) Austro-Asiatic
(B) Dravidian
(C) Indo-Aryan
(D) Tibeto-Burman

21. Assertion (A) : Many geographers felt uneasy about the identification of Geography as a chorological science.
Reason (R) : Geography was defined in terms of its method rather than its subject matter.
Which of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

22. Which one of the following is not an objective of quantitative revolution in Geography ?
(A) To explain and interpret the spatial patterns of geographical phenomena in a rational, objective and cogent manner.
(B) To make geography a truly chorological science
(C) To make precise statements (generalisations) about locational order
(D) To change the descriptive character of the discipline

23. Which was an important instrument for bringing about the required change in perspective in geographical work from regional to systematic ?
(A) Quantification
(B) Geometry
(C) Economics
(D) Psychology

24. Which is the approach that specified, “What ought to be there rather than what is there” is called ?
(A) Normative
(B) Logical
(C) Regional
(D) Positive

25. What distinctive shift in emphasis resulted out of the Schaefer-Hartshorne debate of the 1950s ?
(A) Neo-determinism to possibilism
(B) Areal diffraction to spatial Integration
(C) Physical geography to human geography
(D) Radicalism to humanism

26. Two highly influencial books published by which two geographers during the 1960s underlined the importance of theoretical models and quantification in geography.
(A) Gregory and Chorley
(B) Ackerman and Haggett
(C) Harvey and Gregory
(D) Chorley and Haggett

27. Anthropogeography as a branch of geography developed in the hands of whom ?
(A) Friedrich Ratzel
(B) Alexander Von Humboldt
(C) Carl Ritter
(D) Vidal de la Blache

28. Which of the following statement/s is/are true ?
1. If bulk of values are less than mean, the distribution is negatively skewed
2. If bulk of values are greater than mean, the distribution is positively skewed.
3. A perfect symmetrical normal distribution has zero skewness.
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Only 3 is true
(D) 2 and 3 are true

29. The ruggedness of topography is best represented using :
(A) Composite profile
(B) Projected profile
(C) Superimposed profile
(D) Longitudinal profile

30. In a frequency distribution, the sharply peaked kurtosis is known as :
(A) Micro-kurtic distribution
(B) Meso-kurtic distribution
(C) Platy-kurtic distribution
(D) Lepto-kurtic distribution

31. Which of the following is the value of coefficient of variation, when the mean is 20 and standard deviation is 7.
(A) 20.2 per cent
(B) 40 per cent
(C) 35 per cent
(D) 68 per cent

32. Which of the following aerial photograph will have nadir point, principal point and isocenter all at the same point ?
(A) Low oblique photograph
(B) High oblique photograph
(C) Convergent photograph
(D) Vertical photograph

33. Which of the following correctional procedure in digital image is required for “Line dropouts”.
(A) Geometrical correction
(B) Radiometric correction
(C) Atmospheric correction
(D) Image enhancement

34. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
(1) Median is the value which divides the distribution exactly into two equal halves.
(2) The value of median can be estimated from cumulative frequency graphs.
(3) Median is reliable because it is not affected by sampling fluctuations.
(A) Only statement (1) is true
(B) Only statement (2) is true
(C) Statements (1) and (2) are true
(D) Statements (1) and (3) are true

35. Data that provide additional information about geo-spatial data in GIS is known as :
(A) Raster data
(B) Vector data
(C) Non-spatial data
(D) Meta data

36. The hills of Baba Budan are situated in the :
(A) Eastern Ghat
(B) Western Ghat
(C) Vindhyachal Ranges
(D) North-East Region

37. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift valley due to down warping ?
(A) Damodar
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Son
(D) Yamuna

38. Assertion (A) : Anticyclone conditions are formed over northern India during winter.
Reason (R) : Low temperatures during winter cause pressure to increase.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

39. Munda tribe belongs to which racial group ?
(A) Negrito’s
(B) Proto-Australoids
(C) Mongoloid
(D) Nordics

40. Which of the following statements is true to National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 of India ?
(A) Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to be brought down to the net replacement by 2010
(B) Population stabilization to be achieved by 2035
(C) Reduce Infant Mortality Rate to below 25 per 1000 live births
(D) Reduce maternal Mortality Rate below 50 per 1,00,000 live births

41. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) About one-third of the area of the country records more than 750 mm of annual rainfall.
(B) The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells.
(C) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in Northern plains of the country.
(D) The mountain areas account for about thirty percent of the surface area of the country.
42. Which of the following Iron ores is also known as ‘black ore’ ?
(A) Haematite
(B) Magnetite
(C) Limonite
(D) Siderite

43. The thickest known deposit of ‘Loess’ on the ‘Loess plateau’ is found in ……………. .
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Mongolia
(D) Afghanistan

44. Laterite is produced by :
(A) Hydration and carbonation
(B) Hydrolysis and oxidation
(C) Hydration and calcification
(D) Leaching and oxidation

45. Which action is responsible for the formation of Eskens ?
(A) Fluvio-glacial erosion
(B) Glacial erosion
(C) Glacial deposition
(D) Fluvio-glacial deposition

46. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Laterite soil — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Sandy soil — South Punjab
(C) Red soil — Tamil Nadu
(D) Black soil — Madhya Pradesh

47. Assertion (A) : Granite has larger crystals than basalt.
Reason (R) : Basalt has larger content of metallic minerals.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

48. A ………………. tributary is formed when tributaries in a flood plain may not be able to enter the main river because of raised levees on either bank of the river.
(A) Deferred
(B) Solitary
(C) Anabranch
(D) Anastomosing

49. What are the signs of rejuvenation in a river valley ?
(1) Incised meanders
(2) Unpaired terraces
(3) Nick points
(4) Paired terraces
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2), (3) and (4)
(D) (1), (3) and (4)

50. ……………….. is the area in a drainage network where stream directions are opposite and elevation is maximum.
(A) Mid slope
(B) Water divide
(C) Valley
(D) Confluence

51. The turbidity currents observed in arid climate are better known as ………………. .
(A) Dust storms
(B) Thunderstorm
(C) Tornado
(D) Cyclone

52. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Wind speed increases with friction
(B) Wind speed is inversely proportional to pressure gradient force
(C) Geotrophic wind blows parallel to the isobars
(D) Wind is deflected to its right in the southern hemisphere

53. Assertion (A) : In a rising air parcel the rate of cooling is reduced after condensation.
Reason (R) : Latent heat is released during condensation.
Select your answer from the codes given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

54. Intertropical convergence zone is a feature of which one of the following global circulation cells ?
(A) Ferrel cell
(B) Hadley cell
(C) Morley cell
(D) Polar cell