Agriculture Engineering Selected Question Papers

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Agriculture Engineering Selected Question Papers

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Selected Question Papers on Agriculture Engineering

1. While conducting a short-circuit test on a transformer, the following side is short-circuited:
(1) High voltage side
(2) Low voltage side
(3) Primary side
(4) Secondary side

2. ___________ is one of the low-cost fences that is widely used for confining dairy cattle.
(1) Barbed wire fence
(2) Plain wire fence
(3) Welded wire fence
(4) Electric fence

3. The core of a transformer is made up of laminations in order to
(1) Reduce hysteresis loss
(2) Reduce eddy current loss
(3) Reduce copper loss
(4) Reduce hysteresis and eddy current losses

4. The most widely used material of a solar cell is
(1) Arsenic
(2) Aluminium
(3) Silicon
(4) Steel

5. As air moves across the surface of the Earth, its speed and direction changes by the local topography as well as by
(1) local heating
(2) local cooling
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

6. Regarding testing of a transformer, the following statements are made:
a. Open circuit and short circuit tests can determine efficiency only.
b. Open circuit and short circuit tests are simple to conduct.
c. Power required to carry out open circuit and short circuit tests is very large compared with full-load output of a transformer.
d. Direct loading method can also be used to determine efficiency and regulation of a transformer.
Out of the above, following statements is/are true:
(1) a, band d only
(2) b, c and d only
(3) a and d only
(4) b and d only

7. Biogas consists of
(1) Only methane
(2) Methane and CO2with same impurities
(3) A special organic gas
(4) None of the above

8. In this type of energy conversion system, it will have a cut-in speed, rated speed and cut-out speed.
(1) Solar
(2) OTEC
(3) Wind
(4) Thermal

9. The compressive strength of concrete used for different structures is in the range of
(1) 300 – 700 kg/cm2
(2) 300 -700 N/m-m2
(3) 30 – 70 kg/cm2
(4) 100 -500 N/m-m2

10. A building is to be constructed on alluvial soil having a bearing pressure of 6000 kg/sq.m. What shall be the width of masonry foundation having 4000 kg of dead load per running metre of the wall?
(1) 0.4 m
(2) 0.8 m
(3) 0.12m
(4) None of the above

11. The flooring material which is a mixture of linseed oil, gums and resins, pigments, wood floor, cork dust and other filling materials is termed as
(1) Linoleum
(2) Hindaleum
(3) Magnesite
(4) Dolomite

12. Use of steel trusses is economical when it is used for spans greater than
(1) 12m
(2) 8m
(3) 16m
(4) 20m

13. In shallow foundations, if the wall rests directly on foundation concrete without any step, it is called
(1) Spread footing
(2) Swallow footing
(3) RCC pier
(4) Simple footing

14. Which equation is used to estimate the velocity of flow through a channel in designing grass waterways?
(1) Rancer’s equation
(2) Israelson equation
(3) Rational equation
(4) Manning’s equation

15. Which one of the following is not a type of bench terrace?
(1) Level
(2) Inwardly slopping
(3) Outwardly slopping
(4) Along contour

16. Erosivity is defined as
(1) Capacity of wind to cause erosion
(2) Capacity of rain to cause erosion
(3) Vulnerability of soil susceptible for erosion
(4) None of the above

17. Which of the following formulae is used to design peak rate of runoff for spillwayof a
permanent gully control structure?

18. The slope length factor L, in the universal soil loss equation is determined by using
the equation

19. He was the first man who discovered that an electromotive force (emf) is generated in a conductor when the conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force (flux).
(1) Faraday
(2) Newton
(3) Einstein
(4) Pascal

20. Saltation, suspension and surface creep forms of movement of soil particles is associated with which type of soil erosion from the following?
(1) Gully erosion
(2) Rill erosion
(3) Wind erosion
(4) None of the above

More Questions on Agriculture Engineering

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Mock Test

21. What will be the vertical interval between two consecutive contour bunds if the land slope is 3%?
(1) 0.90 m
(2) 0.30 m
(3) 3.00 m
(4) 1.20m

22. Which one of the following is not a permanent gully control structure?
(1) Drop spillway
(2) Chute spillway
(3) Drop inlet spillway
(4) Brushwood dam

23. Soil erosion which results in the form of uniform removal of soil from land surface is termed as
(1) Splash erosion
(2) Rill erosion
(3) Sheet erosion
(4) Gully erosion

24. In case of streams, stream bank erosion generally takes place on the side of the stream.
(1) Convex
(2) Concave
(3) Downstream
(4) top

25. The damaging effect of floods depends on their supercriticality which is measured by the Froude number (Fr).
The flow is said to be supercritical, if
(1) Fr <1
(2) Fr = 1
(3) Fr > 1
(4) Fr ≤ 1

26. Threshold rainfall is defined as
(1) Cumulative rainfall before initiation of runoff
(2) Cumulative rainfall of storm
(3) Total daily rainfall
(4) None of the above

27. Which one of the following is not an artificial Rainwater Harvesting technique?
(1) Rock fracturing
(2) Bore blast technique
(3) Afforestation
(4) Construction of jacket around the well

28. A rectangular farm pond has the following dimensions:
a. Length = 10m
b. Width = 5 m
c. Depth = 1m
If it is totally filled in, what will the volume be in litres?
(1) 50
(2) 500
(3) 5,000
(4) 50,000

29. A farm pond has the following specifications:
a. Bottom surface = 5 x 5 m
b. Depth = 5 m
c. Side slopes = 1H: 1V
(on all the sides)
What will the size of the top of the farm pond be?
(1) 10 m x 10m
(2) 20m x 20 m
(3) 15m x 15m
(4) 20 m x 10m

30. Which one of the following options cannot be included in the concept of watershed development?
(1) Construction of major dams
(2) Optimal management of land water resources
(3) Socio-economic and institutional development
(4) Biodiversity protection

31. Delineation of a watershed is an exercise of
(1) Area wise delineation
(2) Land use wise delineation
(3) Topographically drainage stream wise delineation
(4) None of the above

32. Out of different biological measures used to control erosion in a watershed, which one of the following is not a biological measure?
(1) Contour strip cropping
(2) Mixed cropping
(3) Buffer strip cropping
(4) Field strip cropping

33. Which of the following types of farm ponds should be selected where ground water table rise is within a few metres from the ground surface?
(1) Embankment type
(2) Dugout type
(3) Polythene lined dugout type
(4) Cement concrete lined embankment type

34. Which one of the following options is not a geomorphological characteristic of a watershed?
(1) Total area of watershed
(2) Circulatory ratio
(3) Form factor
(4) Compaction factor

35. For land use planning, land capability classification maps are prepared. Which type of land capability class the area demarked with green colour represent?
(1) Class I
(2) Class II
(3) Class VI
(4) Class VIII

36. The surface of a channel which is in contact with water is called
(1) Hydraulic radius
(2) Wetted perimeter
(3) Wetted area
(4) None of the above

37. The drainage density of any catchment/watershed varies inversely with the
(1) area of the basin
(2) length of the basin
(3) width of the basin
(4) average depth of the basin

38. The type of flow in which the fluid characteristics like velocity, pressure, density, etc. at a point do not change with time, is called
(1) Steady flow
(2) Unsteady flow
(3) Uniform flow
(4) Non-uniform flow

39. The typical characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump show the relationship amongst
a. Discharge
b. Total head
c. Brake horse power
d. Efficiency
Answer options:
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b, c and d

40. A canal aligned at right angles to the contours is a
(1) Watershed canal
(2) Contour canal
(3) Side slope carial
(4) Distributary canal

41. The criteria for judging the performance of outlets or modules are
a. Flexibility
b. Proportionality
c. Sensitivity
d. Uniformity
e. Setting
Answer options:
(1) a, b, c and d only
(2) a, b, c and e only
(3) a, b, d and e only
(4) b, c, d and e only

42. The bedding system of surface drainage is mostly used for
a. Flat soils
b. Steep slopy soils
c. Poorly drained soils with low permeability
d. Sandy soils with high permeability
Answer options:
(1) a and b only
(2) c and d only
(3) a and c only
(4) b and d only

43. Cover material is applied to pipe drains
a. to facilitate water flow into the drain.
b. to prevent the entry of soil particles into the drain.
Answer options:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) None of the above

44. A 36 hectare catchment area having a drainage coefficient of 2.40 cm, will yield a discharge of
(1) 100 lit/sec
(2) 10 lit/sec
(3) 10 m3/hr
(4) 0.01m3/sec

45. Which one of the following formulae is used to design drain spacing under unsteady state condition?
(1) Dupit-Forchheimer
(2) Ernst
(3) Hooghoudt
(4) Glover-Dumm

46. Which of the following operations requires moving large quantities of earth over considerable distances?
a. Rough grading
b. Land levelling
c. Land smoothening
d. Land planning
Answer options:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b only
(4) All of the above

47. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Specificyield + Specific retention = Porosity
(2) Specific retention -Specificyield = Porosity
(3) Porosity + Specificyield = Specificretention
(4) Porosity + Specificretention = Specificyield

48. High speed engines have engine speed ___________ rpm.
(1) less than 350
(2) 350- 750
(3) 750- 1000
(4) greater than 1000

49. An engine is considered to be better, when it produces the highest crankshaft torque at
(1) Rated engine speed
(2) Maximum power
(3) Less than rated engine speed
(4) More than rated engine speed

50. The compression ratio of diesel engines are in the order of
(1) 4 to 8: 1
(2) 8 to 14: 1
(3) 14 to 20: 1
(4) 1 to 4: 1

51. The fuel which should be used for easy starting of an engine in cold weather is
(1) Diesel
(2) Kerosene
(3) Methanol
(4) Petrol

52. The power developed by an average pair of bullocks is about
(1) 7500 watts
(2) 750 watts
(3) 75000 watts
(4) 75 watts

53. A cold spark plug has
(1) A short insulator
(2) Small threads
(3) A long insulator
(4) Big threads

54. The drawbar power output is always less than the Power Take-Off (FTO) output because of _________ in the drive train between the engine and the wheels.
(1) drive wheel slippage
(2) tractor rolling resistance
(3) friction losses
(4) All of the above

55. The component parts of a single drop steering system consists of the following parts:
a. Radius rod, drag link and steering wheel
b. Drop arm, drag link and tie rod
c. Radius rod, tie rod and drop arm
d. Drag link, radius rod and drop arm
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(1) a, c and d only
(2) a only
(3) b only
(4) c only

56. A gear reduction unit between differential and drive wheels of a tractor is referred to as
(1) Final drive
(2) Gear unit
(3) Ultimate power system
(4) None of the above

57. When the tractor is taking a turn, the inner and outer wheels should
(1) Rotate at the same speed
(2) Rotate at slower and faster speeds respectively
(3) Rotate at faster and slower speeds respectively
(4) Rotate at any speed

58. Which type/s of dynamometer/s has/have to absorb energy to measure FTO power of the tractor?
a. Prony brake
b. Hydraulic
c. Electrical generator
d. Eddy current
Answer options:
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and d only
(4) All of the above

59. __________ are the useful devices used for levelling which are fabricated by village artisans.
a. Buck scraper
b. Float
c. Planks
d. Bund former
Answer options:
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and d
(3) a only
(4) All of the above

60. An implement that is fully supported by the tractor is
(1) Trailed implement
(2) Mounted implement
(3) Semi-mounted implement
(4) All of the above

61. To change the width of cut with a disc plough, the _________ should be changed; usually _________ is considered to be the optimum value.
(1) disk angle, 40° to 45°
(2) tilt angle, 15° to 25°
(3) horizontal suction, 6 to 12
(4) vertical suction, 6 to 12

62. The point at which the resultant of all horizontal and vertical forces act on implement is known as
(1) Centre of pull
(2) Centre of power
(3) Centre of resistance
(4) Centre of hitch

63. Depreciation is the reduction in the value of a machine caused by
(1) Wear
(2) Weathering and accidental damage
(3) Obsolescence or any other similar reasons
(4) All of the above

64. _________ is a precision drilling machine.
(1) Seed drill
(2) Planter
(3) Transplanter
(4) Tiphan

65. In a sickle, the forged end of the blade for fixing the handle is called
(1) Ferrule
(2) Tang
(3) Frame
(4) Beam

66. The seed drill should be calibrated for _________ before actually operating in the field.
(1) placement of seeds at correct row-to-row spacing
(2) placement of seeds at correct seed-to-seed spacing
(3) correct seed rate
(4) correct seed depth

67. __________ loss is the grain lost out the rear of combine in the form of unthreshed heads.
(1) Cutter bar
(2) Threshing
(3) Separating
(4) Cleaning