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Law Related Question Test Papers

1. The person to whom goods are delivered according Bailment is called
(a) Bailor
(b) Bailee
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these

2. Taylor vs Caldwell case is related with
(a) Doctrine of frustration
(b) Remoteness of damages
(c) Consideration
(d) Fraud

3. A agrees to pay B rupees 1000 if two straight lines should enclose a space. This agreement is
(a) Valid
(b) Void under section 36 of the Indian Contract Act
(c) Void under section 56 of the Indian Contract Act
(d) Voidable under section 19 of the Indian Contract Act

4. Balfour vs Balfour case is related with
(a) Intention to Contract
(b) Invitation to offer
(c) Communication of acceptance
(d) None of these

5. ‘Agent’ has been defined under __________ of the Indian Contract Act,1872
(a) Section 181
(b) Section 182
(c) Section 183
(d) Section 184

6. The word ‘Tort’ has been derived from the Latin word
(a) Tortum
(b) Tortus
(c) Torts
(d) Torten

7. Who propounded the “Pigeon-hole Theory”?
(a) Salmond
(b) Winfield
(c) Pollock
(d) Austin

8. The Maxim Damnum sine injuria means
(a) damage or loss without infringement of legal rights
(b) infringement of private legal rights without damage or loss
(c) there is no right without remedy
(d) an invasion of absolute private rights

9. Which of these do not constitute a General defense in Law of Torts?
(a) Violent non fit injuria
(b) Injuria sine damno
(c) Vis major
(d) All of these are defenses

10. The tort of Nuisance occurs where
(a) The enjoyment of a legal right is interfered with
(b) A person is restrained from going anywhere
(c) A person fails to perform his/her legal duty
(d) None of these

11. Why a threat of violence made over the telephone cannot constitute an assault?
(a) Because a reasonable person would not feel afraid as a result of hearing such a threat
(b) Because the defendant must be in the same place as the plaintiff for there to be an assault
(c) Because the plaintiff would have no reason to suppose that the defendant would follow through with the threat
(d) Because the violent contact threatened by the defendant would not be imminent

12. Libel and slander are kinds of
(a) damnum sine injuria
(b) defamation
(c) discharge of torts
(d) none of these

13. The maxim ‘ex turpi causa non oritur actio’ means
(a) from a dishonorable cause an action does not arise
(b) an action arises from an immoral cause
(c) immorality always depends on the liability on the prevailing circumstances
(d) None of these

14. The ‘Rule of Strict Liability’ implies
(a) no fault liability
(b) liability based on fault
(c) state liability
(d) absolute liability

15. The distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions of the State was laid down in case of
(a) Rylands vs Fletcher
(b) Donoghue vs Stevension
(c) M C Mehta vs Union of India
(d) Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. vs Secretary of State , India

16. Negligence is failure in duty of taking due care. What is the means of due here?
(a) degree of care which in given situation reasonable person ought to take
(b) the care will vary from case to case
(c) the degree of case is vague expression
(d) there is an absolute standard of care

17. The rule laid down in case of Re Polemis case is that the defendant shall be liable for
(a) All direct consequences of his act
(b) All direct consequences of his act, if could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act
(c) All direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage, which has actually occurred
(d) Foreseeable damages

18. In contributory negligence
(a) Both parties have contributed to negligence equally
(b) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care
(c) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care
(d) When lack of care is equal from both side

19. Which among the following options is specific defence in the act of defamation?
(a) privilege, truth , fair comment
(b) privilege mistake fair comment
(c) truth mistake fair comment
(d) truth privilege mistake

20. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Ubi jus ibiremedium – where there is a right there is a remedy
(b) Res ipsaloquitur – things speak for itself
(c) Damnum sine injuria – damage without injury
(d) Injuria sine damnum – injury with damage

21. For false imprisonment, which among the following is essential?
(a) person should be in prison
(b) person should be kept in a house
(c) person should be guarded by armed guard
(d) person should not have liberty to go beyond certain limits

22. The ‘Law of Tort theory’ of Winfield is approved by the courts in
(a) Rylands v Fletcher
(b) D P Chaudhary v Manjulata
(c) Ashby v White
(d) None of these

23. Which of the following is not an aspect of the definition of the tort of private nuisance?
(a) An indirect interference
(b) An unlawful interference
(c) A continuous interference
(d) A negligent interference

24. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 is applicable when
(a) Government acquires land for its own use, hold and control, including land for Public sector undertakings
(b) Government acquires land with the ultimate purpose to transfer it for the use of private companies for stated public purpose
(c) Government acquires land for immediate and declared use by private companies for public purpose.
(d) All of these

25. Which section of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 provide about special provision to safeguard food security?
(a) section 8
(b) section 9
(c) section 10
(d) section 11

More Question Set on Law MCQs from Various Exam

26. Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 what is the means of small farmer?
(a) Small farmer means a cultivator holding irrigated land of two hectare or with un-irrigated land of one hectare
(b) Small farmer means a cultivator holding irrigated land of two hectare with un-irrigated land or of one hectare of irrigated land
(c) Both (a) & (b) are correct
(d) None of these is correct

27. Which one is not correct?
In determining the amount of compensation to be awarded for the land acquired under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, the Collector shall take into consideration.
(a) The damaged sustained by the person by reason of taking of any standing crops or trees which may be on the land at the time of the collector’s taking possession thereof
(b) The damage sustained by person interested at the time of Collector’s taking possession of land, by reason of serving such land from his other land
(c) The market value as determined under section 26 of the Act should be in accordance with the Firs and Second Schedules
(d) None of these is correct

28. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 received the assent of President of India on
(a) 24th December, 2013
(b) 25th December, 2013
(c) 26th December, 2013
(d) 27th December, 2013

29. The word “Manufacture”, in relation to narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances include
(a) Refining of such drugs or substances
(b) Transformation of such drugs or substances
(c) Making of preparation (otherwise than in a pharmacy on prescription) with or containing such drugs or substances
(d) All of these

30. Under the NDPS Act, 1985 the “poppy straw” means all parts of the opium poppy except
(a) Flower
(b) Leaf
(c) Seed
(d) All of these

31. Who has power to take measures for preventing and combating abuse of and illicit traffic in narcotic drugs?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Drug Inspectors
(d) None of these

32. The provision for constituting National Fund for Control of Drug Abuse has been provided in _______________ of the NDPS Act, 1985.
(a) Section 6 A
(b) Section 7 A
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 9

33. Which Statement is correct?
(a) No narcotic drug, psychotropic substance, coca plant, the opium poppy or cannabis plant shall be liable to be attached by any person for the recovery of any money under any order or decree of any court
(b) Only 50% of the narcotic drug, psychotropic substance can be attached by any person for the recovery of any money under any order or decree of any court
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

34. Whoever transports small quantity of ‘poppy straw’ in contravention of the provision of NDPS Act,1985 shall be liable to be punished
(a) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees or with both
(b) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees or with both
(c) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to nine months, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees or with both
(d) none of these

35. Cannabis (hemp) means:
(a) Charas and Ganja
(b) Tobacco
(c) Coca Plant
(d) All of these

36. Whoever, in contravention of any provision of NDPS Act, 1985 or any rule or order made or condition of licence granted thereunder, manufactures, possesses, sells, purchases, transports, imports inter-State, exports inter-State or uses any manufactured drug or any preparation containing any manufactured drug of small quantity, shall be punishable
(a) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both
(b) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both
(c) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both
(d) none of these

37. Whoever consumes cocaine or morphine shall be punishable
(a) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both
(b) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both
(c) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both
(d) none of these

38. There will be no suspension, remission or commutation in any sentence awarded under the ND &PS Act, 1985. This provision has been added in the act from
(a) 29-05-1989
(b) 30-06-1990
(c) 29-05-1990
(d) 28-07-1991

39. Presumption from possession of Illicit articles has been provided under __________of the ND&PS Act, 1985.
(a) Section 53
(b) Section 53A
(c) Section 54
(d) Section 55

40. Any person empowered to search and seizure, under the NDPS Act, 1985 vexatiously and unnecessarily detains, searches or arrests any person
(a) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two months or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both
(b) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three months or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both
(c) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both
(d) none of these

41. Any officer, on whom any duty has been imposed by or under the NDPS Act and who ceases or refuses to perform it.
(a) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine or with both
(b) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both
(c) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with fine or with both
(d) None of these

42. Forfeiture of property derived from, or used in illicit traffic has been provided under
(a) Chapter V of the NDPS Act
(b) Chapter VA of the ND&PS Act
(c) Chapter VI of the ND&PS Act
(d) None of these

43. The Narcotics Control Bureau was created on
(a) 15th March 1986
(b) 17 March 1986
(c) 1st March, 1986
(d) None of these

44. How many times has the ND&PS Act been amended?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) five

45. What quantity of heroin is permissible for commercial purpose?
(a) 200 gm
(b) 250 gm.
(c) 300 gm.
(d) None of these

46. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
(a) Applies to the Citizen of India who are outside India also
(b) Applies to Jammu & Kashmir also
(c) Applies to Citizen of other country also
(d) None of these is correct

47. Any offence punishable under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, will be tried by
(a) Session Judge
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Special Judge
(d) All of these

48. Who among the following is not a public servant Under the Prevention of Corruption Act,1988?
(a) Member of Legislative Assembly
(b) Any person authorised by a court of justice to perform any duty, in connection with the administration of justice, including a liquidator, receiver or commissioner appointed by such court
(c) Any arbitrator or other person to whom any cause or matter has been referred for decision or report by a court of justice or by a competent public authority
(d) Any person who holds an office by virtue of which he is empowered to prepare, publish, maintain or revise an electoral roll or to conduct an election or part of an election

49. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act,1988 if summary trial takes place the sentence of imprisonment
(a) shall not exceed 3years
(b) shall not exceed 2 years
(c) shall not exceed 1year
(d) shall not exceed 6 months

50. Special Judges are appointed by
(a) Central or State Government as the case may be
(b) Governor of the State
(c) Concerned High Court
(d) None of these