Project Management Interview Questions

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Interview Questions on Project Management

1. In case of GE 9 cell matrix, if industry attractiveness is low but business unit strength is high, the product strategy should be:
(A) Invest
(B) Protect
(C) Harvest
(D) Divest

2. Core competencies are described as ……………………… in McKinsey’s 7S framework.
(A) Strategies
(B) Systems
(C) Skills
(D) Staff

3. Establishing an image of the product or service in the mind of consumer is described as:
(A) New product development
(B) Positioning
(C) Product life cycle
(D) Sales promotion

4. First step of new product development is:
(A) Product Launch
(B) Idea Screening
(C) Idea Generation
(D) Market Survey

5. Any paid form of non-personal presentation by an identified sponsor is popularly known as:
(A) Advertising
(B) Personal Selling
(C) Direct Marketing
(D) Sales Promotion

6. The total assortment of products and services marketed by a firm are called as:
(A) Product line
(B) Individual product
(C) Product mix
(D) Product strategy

7. Distribution strategy in which company limits its outlets in different regions or buyer can buy in only company’s territory is classified as:
(A) Intensive territorial agreement
(B) Selective territorial agreement
(C) Inclusive territorial agreement
(D) Exclusive territorial agreement

8. Many companies in India are taking up rural marketing because:
(A) There is exemption from Sales-Tax
(B) There is clean environment
(C) It is economic to distribute in rural markets
(D) Rural market in India has a tremendous potential that is yet to be tapped

9. The method of corporate image building handling unfavourable events and stories to get favourable public response is called:
(A) Sales Promotion
(B) Personal Selling
(C) Public Relations
(D) Advertising

10. The concept of retail organisation in which two or more outlets are controlled and owned commonly is classified as:
(A) Chain Stores
(B) Voluntary Stores
(C) Super Stores
(D) Discount Stores

11. Collection of activities used to sell products too directly to end users for non-business use is classified as:
(A) Inter-modelling
(B) Distribution operation
(C) Wholesaling
(D) Retailing

12. Marketing channel that involves no intermediaries to make their products available to final buyers is classified as:
(A) Direct Channel
(B) Indirect Channel
(C) Flexible Channel
(D) Static Channel

13. The minor stimuli which determines when and how customers will respond in certain way is called:
(A) Perception
(B) Cues
(C) Motives
(D) Drives

14. Offering of all brands and brand lines by a particular company is considered as:
(A) Company portfolio
(B) Brand portfolio
(C) Corporate portfolio
(D) Brand line portfolio

15. Physical evidence in case of services marketing helps:
(A) To evaluate the services by customers
(B) To easily deliver the services
(C) To evaluate the services by the service provider
(D) To assess the service quality by third party

16. What is referred to the event when a customer’s expectations of a service encounter are not met?
(A) Service scape
(B) Service recovery
(C) Service failure
(D) Service mix

17. Brand equity generally means:
(A) Brand Attitude
(B) Brand Positioning
(C) Brand Value
(D) Brand Sales

18. …………………….. modules enable a company to learn more about customers and their needs with each interaction.
(A) ERP
(B) EDI
(C) CRM
(D) EFT

19. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(A) Mean Deviation
(B) Normal Deviation
(C) Standard Deviation
(D) Range

20. A type II error is:
(A) Accepting H0 when it is false
(B) Accepting H0 when it is true
(C) Rejecting H0 when it is false
(D) Rejecting H0 when it is true

21. Sampling error can be reduced by:
(A) Non-probability sampling
(B) Increasing the sample size
(C) Increasing the population
(D) Reducing the sample size

22. Which value of correlation coefficient (r) suggests strongest correlation amongst the following?
(A) r = 0
(B) r = 0.25
(C) r = 0.75
(D) r = –1

23. The assumption that the variance of the residuals about the predicated dependent variable scores should be same for all predicted scores reflects:
(A) Homogeneity
(B) Normality
(C) Multicollinearity
(D) Homoscedasticity

24. If the optimum solution table of a transportation problem has more than one empty cell having their opportunity cost as zero, then it indicates that:
(A) The solution is not feasible
(B) Something is wrong in the solution
(C) A case of degeneracy
(D) The problem has multiple solutions

25. For the same volume of production, process layout needs …………….. space as compared to product layout.
(A) Less
(B) Equal
(C) More
(D) cannot be determined

26. The purpose of transportation approach to locational analysis is to minimise:
(A) Total Costs
(B) Total Shipping Costs
(C) Total Variable Costs
(D) Total Fixed Costs

27. In PERT/CPM network, a dummy activity is necessary when:
(A) Two activities have the same starting node
(B) Two activities have the same ending node
(C) A node actually does not connect to another node
(D) When two activities share the same starting and ending node

28. Which of the following is not the advantage of Special Economic Zone (SEZ)?
(A) Single window clearance
(B) 100% income tax exemption
(C) Ready market for products
(D) Central/State taxes exemptions

29. Batch processing involves:
(A) Processing of data much after the transaction has completed
(B) Processing of data as the transaction is happening
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Processing of data as the transaction is happening, but form a batch storage

30. Facebook Tackles Big data with ……………….. based on Hadoop.
(A) Project Prism
(B) Prism
(C) Project Data
(D) Project Bid

31. As per the principle of comparative advantage, a country shall benefit in foreign trade if it:
(A) has better technology
(B) has better management and techniques
(C) specializes in goods which could be produced at comparatively lower costs
(D) dumps goods in other countries

32. Transaction processing systems are also called online system because:
(A) They record all transactions as they happen in real time.
(B) They record all activities of various lines and functions in an organisation.
(C) The record and aggregate activities to report them online.
(D) They record only online transactions of an organisation.

33. What is Artificial Intelligence?
(A) Putting your intelligence into computer
(B) Programming with your own intelligence
(C) Making a machine intelligent
(D) Putting more memory into computer

34. If a country experiences deficit in the balance of payments accounts, it can be corrected through:
(i) Demonetization
(ii) nationalization of industries
(iii) exchange control
(iv) import quotas
Choose the correct alternative:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

35. Investors from all over the world prefer investing in India through Mauritius because:
(A) It involves minimum paper work
(B) It is cheap and convenient
(C) It is profitable in the long-run
(D) Investors can take advantage of double tax avoidance treaty

36. The ………….. approach emphasizes the human element of necessary change within organisations.
(A) OLAP
(B) Data Mining
(C) Data Warehousing
(D) BPR

37. …………………… is a specialised firm that finances young, startup companies.
(A) Finance Company
(B) Small Business Finance Co.
(C) Venture Capital Firm
(D) Capital Creation Co.

38. The concept of Small Scale Industries (SSIs) was brought to the fore by the:
(A) Industrial Policy Resolution 1948
(B) Industrial Policy Resolution 1956
(C) Industrial Policy Statement 1977
(D) Industrial Policy Statement 2016

39. Which bank is called lender of last resort?
(A) Commercial Bank
(B) Agricultural Bank
(C) Industrial Bank
(D) Central Bank

40. If the investment in fixed assets or plant and machinery does not exceed five crore rupees then that particular firm comes under the category of:
(A) Medium Scale Industry
(B) Small Scale Industry
(C) Cottage Industry
(D) Village Industry

41. The primary purpose of the five forces model is to:
(A) List the five forces in rank order
(B) Provide a graphic model
(C) Assess the five forces as compared to the standard value
(D) Strategic analysis

42. Innovation can help to provide a temporary competitive advantage when:
(A) Barriers to entry are high
(B) Barriers to imitation are low and intellectual property rights are difficult to enforce
(C) Barriers to entry are low
(D) There are few other competitors

43. Which of the following is not a significant reason for becoming a woman entrepreneur?
(A) Self image as it relates to status
(B) Flexibility in working hours
(C) Keeping oneself gainfully occupied
(D) Earning extra money for family

44. Factors supporting establishing climate for Intrapreneurship in an organization:
(A) Experimentation trial and error is encouraged
(B) Failures not allowed
(C) Barriers to new product creation and development
(D) Limited resources with short term goals

45. Entrepreneurship can be best described as:
(A) a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation
(B) having a strong vision
(C) taking significant risk in a business context
(D) a process that requires setting up a business

46. Which of the following gives the owners a negative right, preventing anyone from making, using, or selling the invention?
(A) Copyright
(B) Trade mark
(C) Patent
(D) Trade Secret

47. There is no discernible link between planning and performance; whom is this position held by?
(A) Michael Porter
(B) Milton Friedman
(C) Gary Hamel
(D) Henry Mintzberg

48. Which of these factors is not one of the competing responsibilities that influence Corporate Social Responsibility?
(A) Ethical
(B) Economic
(C) Discretionary
(D) Technical

49. Simon (1960) is associated with what type of decision-making model?
(A) Rational
(B) Classical
(C) Programmed
(D) Administrative

50. Which of these is not mentioned in decision-making matrix?
(A) Analytic
(B) Behavioural
(C) Directive
(D) Performance management