Political Science Sample Question

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Sample Question on Political Science

1. Article 243 I of the Indian Constitution provides for the constitution of:
(A) Panchayat Raj Institutions
(B) Municipalities
(C) State Finance Commission
(D) State Election Commission

2. Major challenges faced by urban local governance bodies in India are:
(a) Financial crunch
(b) Low level of citizens participation in local bodies
(c) Privatization of public services
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a) and (b)

3. How many states in India have constituted the Lokayukta institutions?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 17
(D) 19

4. Lokpal consists of:
(A) 9 members including chairperson
(B) 8 members including chairperson
(C) 10 members excluding chairperson
(D) 7 members excluding chairperson

5. Which among the following is not the feature of good governance?
(A) Equitable and inclusive
(B) Non-responsive and nonconsensus
(C) Participatory and accountable
(D) Transparent

6. In which Article right to education is incorporated?
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 19(2)
(C) Article 21(A)
(D) Article 23

7. What are the features of MNREGA?
(a) A person above the age of 14 years is entitled to apply for work.
(b) Any applicant is entitled to work within 15 days of his application.
(c) It is limited to 100 days per household per year.
(d) The applicant will be provided if possible within radius of 5 km.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect and (c) is correct
(B) (a) is incorrect and (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(C) (a) and (b) are correct and (c) and (d) are incorrect
(D) (a), (b) and (d) are correct and (c) is incorrect

8. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Military capability is a tangible element of National power.
(B) The quality of leadership can improve the power of a state.
(C) Demographic indicators are important for understanding the power of a state.
(D) Geography is an element of soft power of a state.

9. Which of the following statements is not correct about Paris agreement on Climate Change 2015?
(A) It has determined uniform target of emission reduction for all countries.
(B) It has asked countries to determine their own emission reduction targets.
(C) It relies on the principle of differential treatment of developed and underdeveloped countries for emission targets.
(D) It has made a detailed timetable for emission reduction for all countries.

10. Which of the following is an incentive behind the Look East Policy of India?
(A) Weapons purchases
(B) Quest for energy security
(C) To build relations to counter China-Pak axis
(D) Dominate the Indian Ocean

11. Which of the following regional trade groups have lowest percentage of intra-regional trade?
(A) SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Association)
(B) NAFTA (North Atlantic Free Trade Association
(C) EU (European Union)
(D) ASEAN (Association of South-East Asian Nations)

12. Which of the following principles of the WTO applies specifically to the developing countries?
(A) Special and differential treatment
(B) Reciprocity and nondiscrimination
(C) Predictability through transparency
(D) Equal treatment to locally produced and foreign goods

13. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) World system theory believes that anarchic international system is the root cause of conflict.
(B) Structural realism believes that human nature is the root cause of conflict.
(C) Realist theory of International Relations draws inspiration from Hobbes’ thought
(D) Constructivism analyses the core and periphery in International Relations.

14. Which of the following are forced migrants?
(A) Mexicans crossing the border to enter the US
(B) Sri Lankan Tamils living in camps in Tamil Nadu
(C) Indian workers in Saudi Arabia
(D) Pakistani workers in UAE

15. A new model of public sector management which emerged in 1990s is known also as:
(A) Managerialism
(B) Market-based public administration
(C) Entrepreneurial government
(D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is an element of India’s ‘Look East’ Policy?
(A) Nuclear co-operation treaty with ASEAN countries
(B) Co-operation with ASEAN countries on South China Sea disputes
(C) Promoting Democracy in ASEAN countries
(D) Free Trade Agreement with ASEAN countries

17. Among the following regional groups, which has signed a Free Trade Agreement with India?
(A) European Union
(B) Association of South-East Asian Nations
(C) Shanghai Co-operation Organisation
(D) Gulf Co-operation Council

18. Which of the following is not an element of India-Russia co-operation?
(A) Joint ventures in weapons production
(B) Joint ventures in exploration of natural gas
(C) Joint ventures in sea-bed exploration
(D) Nuclear partnership

19. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Indus Water Treaty created the Permanent Indus Commission.
(B) Indus Water Treaty gave the control of three ‘eastern’ rivers (Beas, Ravi, Sutlej) to Pakistan.
(C) Indus Water Treaty appointed an international mediator for resolving water disputes between India and Pakistan.
(D) Indus Water Treaty appointed a third party arbitrator to resolve water disputes between India and Pakistan.

20. Which one of the following is not a principle of India’s Nuclear Doctrine?
(A) Non-proliferation of nuclear technology
(B) Minimum Credible Deterrence
(C) No First use of Nuclear Weapons
(D) No use of nuclear weapons against non-nuclear states

21. In which year did India host and chair the summit of the non-aligned movement?
(A) 1983
(B) 1979
(C) 1976
(D) 1986

22. Which of the following terrorist groups is not banned by Government of India?
(A) Abu Sayyaf Group
(B) Babbar Khalsa International
(C) Communist Party of India (Maoist)
(D) Hizb-ul-Mujahideen

23. ‘Chakmas’ are the migrants in India who have come from:
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Bhutan
(D) Nepal

24. Who are regarded as the ‘founding fathers’ of the non-aligned movement?
(A) Nehru, Nasser, Sukarno
(B) Nehru, Tito, Sukarno
(C) Nehru, Nasser, Tito
(D) Nehru, Sukarno, Ho Chi Minh

25. Assertion (A): India-Vietnam friendship dates back to Cold War period.
Reason (R): Vietnam has supported India’s bid for UN Security Council permanent membership.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, (R) is not true
(B) (A) is not true, (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a cause of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a cause of (A)

26. When the ‘Uniting for Peace’ resolution was adopted by the UN General Assembly?
(A) 1961
(B) 1951
(C) 1950
(D) 1952

27. The most essential feature of Federal Government is:
(A) Supremacy of Judiciary
(B) Supremacy of Parliament
(C) Division of powers between the Federal and State Government
(D) Local Government

28. Political Science is a discipline:
(A) Which does not subscribe to any values
(B) Which provides value-free analysis
(C) Meant to study values
(D) That cannot ignore values

29. Which of the following countries has adopted the method of amending the constitution by a popular vote?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Switzerland
(D) India

30. By which of the following methods the American federation was formed?
(A) Legislature
(B) The Act of Senate
(C) A voluntary agreement
(D) By revolution

31. Which one of the following political theorists made a clear distinction between two levels of superstructure (a) Political society, (b) Civil society?
(A) F. Engels
(B) Mao
(C) Gramsci
(D) Lenin

32. Which one of the following philosophers is associated with Egalitarian Liberal Theory of Justice?
(A) Immanuel Kant
(B) John Rawls
(C) Robert Nozick
(D) T.H. Green

33. The Joint River Commission constituted in 1972 was expected to solve the water dispute between:
(A) India and China
(B) India and Bhutan
(C) India and Bangladesh
(D) India and Nepal

34. Which of the following a group of contemporary political thinkers are staunch supporters of communitarianism?
(A) Rousseau, Hegel and Green
(B) Berlin, Hayek and Milton Friedman
(C) Adam Smith, John Locke and Jeremy Bentham
(D) Michael Okeshott and Hannah Arendt

35. Who is the author of the following statement “traditional political theory is the production of the turmoil that characterise past ages”?
(A) David Easton
(B) Germino
(C) Cobban
(D) Lipset

36. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of behaviourism?
(A) Regularities
(B) Verification
(C) Value-neutrality
(D) Action

37. Give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Legitimacy is the right and acceptance of an authority usually a governing law or a regime.
Reason (R): Authority denotes specific position in an established government.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false

38. Give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Narendra Modi has more power.
Reason (R): Narendra Modi is the Prime Minister of India.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false

39. According to David Easton Political System has certain key aspects.
Identify the correct aspects:
(i) Political system is just one among other forms of social system.
(ii) Political system allocates by means of policies.
(iii) Its allocations are not authoritative.
(iv) Its allocations are not binding on society.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(D) Only (iv) is incorrect

40. Which of the following sets of values emphasised by the classical model of Public Administration is challenged by the New Public Management?
(A) Rationality, hierarchy, centralization
(B) Professionalism, efficiency, economy
(C) Decentralization, governance, accountability
(D) Communication, leadership, authority

41. What happens when hierarchy in an organization is overextended?
(1) Organizational efficiency increases.
(2) Lower levels are neglected.
(3) Communication becomes more effective.
(4) Chief executive looses touch with the bottom level.
Codes:
(A) (1) and (2) are true
(B) (2) and (3) are true
(C) (1) and (3) are true
(D) (2) and (4) are true

42. The scrutiny of the expenditure of the government by the Public Accounts Committee is effective. Which of the following is its correct reason for the same?
(A) It identifies the unlawful expenditure.
(B) Its scrutiny is based on the report of the CAG.
(C) Its composition provides representation to all the political parties.
(D) It is an ad-hoc committee.

43. Which one of is the characteristic of post-behaviourism?
(A) Quantification
(B) Relevance
(C) Value free
(D) Pure science

44. Which of the following is the correct description of India’s federal system?
(A) A classical federal system
(B) A cooperative federal system
(C) A three-tier federal system
(D) A liberal federal system

45. Which one of the following is not separatist movement?
(A) JKLF
(B) ULFA
(C) PLA
(D) Naxalism

46. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Collegium system of the Supreme Court has been introduced by the Act of Parliament.
(B) Collegium system has been introduced by Government Resolution.
(C) Collegium system has been already incorporated in the Constitution.
(D) Collegium system has been created by the judgement of the Supreme Court without constitutional mandate.

47. What is reason of recent conflict between executive and judiciary?
(A) On the issue of appointment of judges in the High Courts
(B) On the issue of appointment of judges in lower judiciary
(C) On the issue of hike in the salary of judges of Supreme Court
(D) On the issue of protection of judges of Supreme Court and High Courts

48. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Judicial Activism means an encroachment on the powers of executive by Judiciary
(B) Judicial Activism means judicial excess
(C) Judicial Activism is an inherent power of the judiciary while interpreting law
(D) Judicial Activism is curtailment of the power of states

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) National Judicial appointment commission is working as per the Act of Parliament
(B) National Judicial appointment commission has been declared unconstitutional by Apex Judiciary recently
(C) National Judicial appointment commission was appointed by President of India as per constitutional provisions.
(D) Even after striking down the law of National Judicial appointment commission by Supreme Court, the said commission is still functioning

50. Which of the following is correct about Elections?
(A) Elections in India provide the opportunity for the widest degree of popular participation and for genuine competition between political groups
(B) Elections encourage political violence
(C) Elections empower women voters
(D) Elections maintain status quo