Pharmacology MCQ

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MCQ on Pharmacology

1. Which one is alfa 2 selective adrenergic blocking drug?
(1) Prazocin
(2) Yohimbine
(3) Phentolamine
(4) Terazocin

2. Which of the following anaesthetic agent causing pain on intravenous administration is?
(1) Diazepam
(2) Ketamine
(3) Propofol
(4) Midazolam

3. Neostigmine is not able to cross blood brain barrier because of its
(1) Primary structure
(2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Quartemary structure

4. Renal dose of dopamine is
(1) 25 ug/kg/min
(2) 5-10 pg/kg /min
(3) 10-20 pg/kg /min
(4) 1-2 pg/kg/min

5. Which of the drug cause iatrogenic disease?
(1) Isonizid
(2) Ranitidine
(3) Omiprazole
(4) Paracetamol

6. Drug have mild anaesthetic action on cornea:
(1) Carbamazepine
(2) Imipramine
(3) Atropine
(4) Methylphenidate

7. Which of the following drugs can be given in renal failure safely?
(1) Saxagliptin
(2) Sitagliptin
(3) Vildagliptin
(4) Linagliptin

8. Thrombocytopenia causing drugs are all EXCEPT
(1) Cephalosporin
(2) Multivitamins containing Vitamin K
(3) NSAIDs
(4) Anti-depressants

9. Metformin causes a severe, sometimes life-threatening side effect of lactic acidosis. All of the following factors increase the risk of lactic acidosis EXCEPT :
(1) Liver dysfunction
(2) Advanced age
(3) Smoking
(4) Renal failure

10. Drug advertisement letter is a necessary component of each drug formulation and contains various information about the drug like drug dosing, frequency and half life. Which of the following information need not be given in the drug advertisement letter?
(1) Research papers and other articles proving efficacy of the drug
(2) Date of expiry of the drug
(3) Rare, but serious life threatening adverse effects
(4) Common, not so serious adverse effects

11. The correct sequence of systemic absorption if a drug is administered through skin is :
(1) Scrotum > forearm > scalp > postauricular skin > plantar surface
(2) Scrotum > postauricular skin > forearm > scalp > plantar surface
(3) Plantar surface > Scalp > forearm > postauricular skin > Scrotum
(4) Postauricular skin > forearm > Scroturm > Scalp > plantar surface

12. Which of these sites is least commonly preferred for Insulin injection?
(1) Anterior thigh
(2) Lateral thigh
(3) Dorsum of arm
(4) Around umbilicus

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about rifabutin as compared to rifampicin?
(1) It has higher bioavailability and stronger activity against all mycobacterium
(2) It has a longer half-life
(3) It has lesser drug interactions
(4) It is preferred in patients with HIV

14. Which of the drug of choice for absence seizure?
(1) Valproic acid
(2) Ethosuximide
(3) Lorazepam
(4) Lacosamide

15. Pigmentation of nail is caused by all of these drugs EXCEPT :
(1) Cyclophophamide
(2) Chlorpromazine
(3) Chloroquine
(4) Amiodarone

16. Parecoxib is prodrug of
(1) Etoricoxib
(2) Roficoxib
(3) Valdecoxib
(4) Celecoxib

17. What is the’ ratio of chest compressions and breaths when a lone person is giving cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
(1) 30:1
(2) 30:2
(3) 15:1
(4) 10:1

18. Why 100% Oxygen is administered after nitrous oxide is discontinued on emergence from anesthesia?
(1) Second gas effect
(2) Diffusion hypoxia
(3) For adequate analgesia
(4) As air is costlier than oxygen

19. First Model List of Essential Drugs along with their dosage forms and strengths in
(1) 1976
(2) 1977
(3) 1987
(4) 1978

20. In what is the shapes and sizes of Adhesive patches in Transdermal therapeutic systems.
(1) (2-8 cm2)
(2) (25 -40cm2)
(3) (5-20 cm2)
(4) (1-5cm2)

21. A relatively short hypnotic action lasting 6-8 hours is exerted by due to redistribution despite their elimination t Y2 of > 30 hr.
(1) Barbiturate
(2) Nitrazepam
(3) Flumazenil
(4) Zolpidem

22. Which is incorrect match
1. Father of Modern Experimental Medicine Claude Bernard (1813-1878)
2. Father of American Pharmacology Paul Ehrlich (1854-1915)
3. Father of Indian Pharmacology Ram Nath Chopra (1882-1973)
4. Father of Clinical Pharmacology Lou Lasagna (1923-2003)
5. Father of Modern Medicine Hippocrates (460 BC-370 BC)
6. Father of Modern Pharmacology Oswald Schmiedeberg (1838-1921)
(1) 1,4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 3,1

23. IND application submission required in.
(1) Phase I to III clinical trials
(2) Phase 0, III clinical trials
(3) Phase 0, I to HI clinical trials
(4) Phase 0, I to III, IV clinical trials

24. The Joint Monitoring Group and NTF have now recommended the prophylactic use of HCQ in the following categories EXCEPT
(1) All asymptomatic healthcare workers involved in containment and treatment of COVID19 and asymptomatic healthcare workers working in non-COVID hospitals/non-COVID areas’ of COVID hospitals/blocks.
(2) Asymptomatic frontline workers, such as surveillance workers deployed in containment zones and paramilitary/police personnel involved in COVID-19 related activities.
(3) Asymptomatic household contacts of laboratory confirmed cases.
(4) Asymtomatic household contacts of treating health care worker.

25. The Joint Monitoring Group and NTF have now recommended the prophylactic use of HCQ in the following categories as Exclusion/contraindications
(1) The drug is contraindicated in persons with known case of : 1. Retinopathy, 2. Hypersensitivity to HCQ or 4-aminoquinoline compounds 3. G6PD deficiency
(2) Pre-existing cardiomyopathy and cardiac rhythm disorders
(3) The drug is not recommended for prophylaxis in children under 15 years of age and in pregnancy and lactation.
(4) All of the above

26. True statement regarding HCQ use Asymptomatic household contacts of laboratory confirmed cases
(1) 400 mg twice a day on Day 1, followed by 400 mg once weekly for next 3 weeks; to be taken with meals
(2) 400 mg BD for 7 days
(3) 400 mg BD weekly for 7 week
(4) All of the above

27. Asymptomatic frontline workers, such as surveillance workers deployed in containment zones and paramilitary/police personnel involved in COVID-19 related activities: TRUE IS
(1) 800 mg twice a day on Day 1, followed by 400 mg once weekly for next 7 weeks; to be taken with meals
(2) 400 mg twice a day on Day 1, followed by 400 mg once weekly for next 7 weeks; to be taken with meals
(3) 400 mg twice a day on Day 1, followed by 400 mg once weekly for next 9 weeks; to be taken with meals
(4) All the above

28. Pharmacovigilance means
(1) Monitoring of drug safety
(2) Monitoring of unethical trade of drugs
(3) Monitoring pharma students
(4) Monitoring drug efficacy

29. Cisapride is useful in
(1) Gastrointestinal spasm
(2) Carcinoid syndrome
(3) Gastrointestinal hypermotility
(4) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

30. How many members must present for protocol approval by ethics committee
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

31. Ethics Committee in meeting unless how many members as detailed below are present in the meeting, namely :-
(1) Medical scientist (preferably a pharmacologist)
(2) Clinician; layperson
(3) Legal expert and social scientist or representative of non-governmental voluntary agency or philosopher or ethicist or theologian or a similar person;
(4) All of above

32. The approving Ethics Committee and the clinical trial site or the bioavailability and bioequivalence centre, as the case may be, shall be located within the same city or within a radius of
(1) 25 kms of the clinical trial
(2) 55 kms of the clinical trial
(3) 50 kms of the clinical trial
(4) 10 kms of the clinical trial

33. The Ethics Committee shall maintain data, record, registers and other documents related to the functioning and review of clinical trial or bioavailability study or bioequivalence study, as the case may be, for a period atter completion of such clinical trial.
(1) 1 year
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years
(4) 10 years

34. Nicolaus syndrome caused by which drugs
(1) Lamivudine
(2) Omeprazole
(3) Diclofenac
(4) Aspirin

35. Stevens-Johnson syndrome cause by
(1) Diclofenac
(2) Chloroquine
(3) Ranitidine
(4) Lamivudine

36. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, established in
(1) 1965
(2) 1947
(3) 1960
(4) 1969

37. The validity of IAEC is for :
(1) 3 Years
(2) 4 Years
(3) 5 Years
(4) 2 Years

38. Headquarters of CPCSEA is situated at-
(1) Chennai
(2) Mumbai
(3) Delhi
(4) Upsala

39. CPCSEA has 10 experts in Committee and how many official members?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

40. In AF, pre-treatment with which of the following drugs facilitates cardioversion?
(1) Ibutilide
(2) Beta blocker
(3) Calcium antagonist
(4) Digitalis

41. Which of the following newer oral anticoagulants have renal excretion?
(1) Debigatran
(2) Rivaroxaban
(3) Apixaban
(4) All of the above

42. Which of the following is a thrombin inhibitor?
(1) Warfarin
(2) Dabigatran
(3) Rivaroxaban
(4) Aptxaban

43. Which of the following drug exhibits properties consistent with multiple classes In Vaughan- Williams classification?
(1) Quinidine
(2) Amiodarone
(3) Mexiletine
(4) Propafenone

44. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is used to treat painful sensory neuropathy?
(1) Mexiletine
(2) Flecainide
(3) Propafenone
(4) Amiodarone

45. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs have hepatic and renal clearance?
(1) Flecainide
(2) Atenolol
(3) Propafenone
(4) Amtodarone